UPSC Prelims 2016 · CSAT (Paper II): Which of the following can lead to food security problem ?1. Using agricultural and…
Read the passage
Biomass as fuel for power, heat, and transport has the highest mitigation potential of all renewable sources. It comes from agriculture and forest residues as well as from energy crops. The biggest challenge in using biomass residues is a long-term reliable supply delivered to the power plant at reasonable costs; the key problems are logistical constraints and the costs of fuel collection. Energy crops, if not managed properly, compete with food production and may have undesirable impacts on food prices. Biomass production is also sensitive to the physical impacts of a changing climate.
Projections of the future role of biomass are probably overestimated, given the limits to the sustainable biomass supply, unless breakthrough technologies substantially increase productivity. Climate-energy models project that biomass use could increase nearly four-fold to around 150 — 200 exajoules, almost a quarter of world primary energy in 2050. However the maximum sustainable technical potential of biomass resources (both residues and energy crops) without disruption of food and forest resources ranges from 80 — 170 exajoules a year by 2050, and only part of this is realistically and economically feasible. In addition, some climate models rely on biomass-based carbon capture and storage, an unproven technology, to achieve negative emissions and to buy some time during the first half of the century.
Some liquid biofuels such as corn-based ethanol, mainly for transport, may aggravate rather than ameliorate carbon emissions on a life-cycle basis. Second generation biofuels, based on ligno-cellulosic feedstocks — such as straw, bagasse, grass and wood — hold the promise of sustainable production that is high-yielding and emit low levels of greenhouse gases, but these are still in the R & D stage.
Which of the following can lead to food security problem ?
- 1. Using agricultural and forest residues as feedstock for power generation
- 2. Using biomass for carbon capture and storage
- 3. Promoting the cultivation of energy crops
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (b) & explanation
Only promoting energy crops threatens food security (b). Step 1: the passage says energy crops "compete with food production and may have undesirable impacts on food prices". So statement 3 is a food security risk. Step 2: agricultural and forest residues (statement 1) are left over after the harvest. Using them takes no food away. Step 3: carbon capture and storage with biomass (statement 2) is described as an unproven technology. It is a climate issue, not a food issue. So options (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Tip: link each statement to the exact problem the passage pins on it. Residues and waste are usually shown as the "safe" choice in biomass passages.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Same theme in UPSC Mains
- MAINS UPSC Mains 2026 · GS Paper IV · Q2bDiscuss how national security can be balanced with concerns of human rights.
- MAINS UPSC Mains 2026 · GS Paper III · Q11Explain the key challenges for India's energy security. What measures do you suggest for ensuring energy security along with economic growth and sustainability?
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Related questions from other years
Question : X receives three coins of different denominations : 1, 2, 5, 10 and 20. If the total amount received by X is m, does X receive a coin of denomination 5?
Statement I : m is not a prime number.
Statement II : The sum of the digits of m is greater than 5.
Answer (a) & explanation
Statement II alone is enough; Statement I alone is not (a). Step 1: three different coins from 1, 2, 5, 10, 20 give ten totals. With a 5: 8, 16, 17, 26, 27, 35. Without a 5: 13, 23, 31, 32. Step 2: Statement I (m not prime): 8, 16, 26, 27, 35 have a 5, but 32 (2 + 10 + 20) does not. Mixed answers, so I fails. Step 3: Statement II (digit sum above 5): 8, 16, 17, 26, 27, 35 qualify, and every one has a 5. (13, 23, 31, 32 have digit sums 4, 5, 4, 5.) So II answers "yes". Options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Tip: when cases are few, list them all. Then check each statement against the full list.
don't assume both statements are needed. Listing all ten cases takes thirty seconds and settles it.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
How is deflation done? Most countries use a method called ‘double deflation’, where input and output prices are deflated separately. Consider a manufacturer importing oil for use in production. If oil prices fall, output prices do not and quantities remain the same, real value added should not change. But if the same deflator is used for inputs and outputs, as in India, it would look as if the manufacturer had become more productive.
Which of the following assumptions is/are valid?
- 1. Deflation strategies can be used to make manufacturers appear to be doing better than they actually are.
- 2. When input and output prices are both deflated against a single input price, it is referred to as ‘double deflation’.
Select the answer using the code given below.
Answer (a) & explanation
Only assumption 1 is valid (a). Step 1: the passage says that using one deflator for inputs and outputs, as in India, makes it "look as if the manufacturer had become more productive". So deflation methods can make firms appear better than they are (1). Step 2: assumption 2 says double deflation means deflating both against a single price. But the passage defines double deflation as deflating inputs and outputs separately. So 2 reverses the definition. Step 3: options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Tip: check definitions word for word against the passage. Deflating means removing the effect of price changes to find real growth, as in real GDP.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
P, Q, R, S and T are ranked 1 to 5 (not necessarily in that order). The rank of P is 4, the rank of Q is not 5, the rank of R is 1, the rank of S is not 2, the rank of T is not 3. Then which of the following is/are correct?
- I. If the rank of S is 3, then that of T is 2.
- II. If the rank of Q is 3, then that of T is 5.
Select the answer using the code given below.
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Step 1: P = 4 and R = 1 are fixed. Ranks 2, 3 and 5 remain for Q, S and T, with rules: Q is not 5, S is not 2, T is not 3. Step 2: statement I: if S = 3, then Q and T share 2 and 5. Q cannot be 5, so Q = 2 and T = 5, not 2. I is wrong. Step 3: statement II: if Q = 3, then S and T share 2 and 5. S cannot be 2, so S = 5 and T = 2, not 5. II is wrong. Options (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Tip: fix the known ranks first, then apply each "if" condition and let the "not" rules decide the rest. Write the small table on paper.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
How many times does 5 appear in all two-digit positive integers?
Answer (b) & explanation
The digit 5 appears 19 times (b). Step 1: 5 in the tens place: 50, 51, …, 59 = 10 times. Step 2: 5 in the units place: 15, 25, 35, 45, 55, 65, 75, 85, 95 = 9 times (05 is not a two-digit number). Step 3: total = 10 + 9 = 19. The number 55 has two 5s, and both are counted. Option (a), 18, counts 55 once. Options (c) and (d) wrongly add 05 or 5.
Tip: count place by place. The question asks how many times the digit appears, not how many numbers contain it (that would be 18).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.