Chapter 10 · Topic 10.2 · Prelims + Mains2 of 3

Basic Structure Doctrine: Kesavananda, 1975 and Minerva Mills

Key points

  • Kesavananda Bharati (24 April 1973): 13 judges, 7:6; Parliament can amend any part but not the basic structure; 24th Amendment upheld; Golaknath overruled; Khanna decisive.
  • Indira Gandhi v Raj Narain (1975): struck down Art 329A(4) (39th Amendment); first use of the doctrine.
  • 42nd Amendment (1976): Art 368(4), (5); wider Art 31C. 44th Amendment (1978) removed Art 329A (Prelims 2019, b).
  • Minerva Mills (1980): struck down Art 368(4), (5) and the Art 31C expansion; limited amending power is basic. Waman Rao (1981): Ninth Schedule cut-off 24 April 1973.

Prelims box: facts and traps

  • The 39th, not the 44th, put the PM's election beyond judicial review.
On this page (3 sections)
  1. Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala (1973)
  2. 1975–76: elections and the 42nd Amendment test the doctrine
  3. Minerva Mills v Union of India (1980)

Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala (1973)

Quick answerThe basic structure doctrine says Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution, but cannot destroy its core features, such as democracy, judicial review and federalism. It began with Kesavananda Bharati (1973) and was made firm in Minerva Mills (1980).

Like renovating a house: you can change the rooms and paint, but you cannot pull out the foundation.

Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala (1973). A 13-judge bench, by 7:6, held:

  • Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights;
  • but it cannot alter its basic structure.
  • It upheld the 24th Amendment and overruled Golaknath.

Why it matters: the origin of the basic structure doctrine. Decided on 24 April 1973.

The story. The case began as a challenge by the head of the Edneer Mutt in Kerala to land reform laws. It became a test of Parliament’s whole amending power.

  • Hearings ran for 68 days.
  • Six judges found implied limits on the amending power, six found none.
  • Justice H.R. Khanna held the balance. He agreed the right to property was not part of the basic structure, but said Parliament could not destroy the basic structure.

Remember: 13 judges · 7:6 · 24 April 1973 · Khanna decisive · Golaknath overruled · 24th Amendment upheld.

What UPSC asks: Prelims: bench size, the 7:6 split, what was decided about Art 368. Mains: the doctrine’s origin and its effect on democracy. Next likely angle: questions linked to the 50-plus years of the judgment.

→ Preamble Kesavananda also held the Preamble to be part of the Constitution.

1975–76: elections and the 42nd Amendment test the doctrine

Indira Gandhi v Raj Narain (1975). The Court struck down clause (4) of Art 329A (added by the 39th Amendment), which had put the Prime Minister’s election beyond any court. Why it matters: the first use of the doctrine to strike down an amendment. Free and fair elections and the rule of law are basic.

Parliament’s answer: the 42nd Amendment (1976).

  • It added clauses (4) and (5) to Art 368: no amendment could be questioned in any court on any ground, and there was no limit on Parliament’s constituent (Constitution-making) power.
  • It widened Art 31C, so a law giving effect to any Directive Principle could not be challenged under Arts 14 or 19.

Prelims 2019 trap: the 39th Amendment, not the 44th, introduced the Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. The 44th Amendment (1978) later removed Art 329A altogether.

Asked by UPSCUPSC Prelims 2019 · GS Paper I · Q45

Consider the following statements : 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer

Answer: (b) · UPSC official key

What UPSC asks: Prelims: 44th Amendment and Art 329A; election of the PM beyond judicial review (2019). Mains: Emergency-era amendments and how the doctrine was used. Next likely angle: which amendments were struck down, and in which case.

→ 42nd Amendment (1976) The amendment that tried to end judicial review of amendments.

Minerva Mills v Union of India (1980)

Minerva Mills v Union of India (1980). The Court struck down clauses (4) and (5) of Art 368 and the 42nd Amendment’s expansion of Art 31C. Why it matters: limited amending power and judicial review are themselves part of the basic structure. So is the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.

In simple words. Chief Justice Y.V. Chandrachud put it this way: since the Constitution gave Parliament a limited amending power, Parliament cannot use that limited power to make it unlimited. The Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles together form the core of the Constitution. Giving one absolute primacy over the other destroys the harmony between them.

Mains 2019: Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution is a limited power and it cannot be enlarged into absolute power. Can Parliament, under Art 368, expand its amending power and then destroy the basic structure? Minerva Mills answers: no.

Asked by UPSCUPSC Mains 2019 · GS Paper II · Q12 · 15 marks

“Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution is a limited power and it cannot be enlarged into absolute power.” In the light of this statement explain whether Parliament under Article 368 of the Constitution can destroy the Basic Structure of the Constitution by expanding its amending power?

Waman Rao v Union of India (1981). Laws placed in the Ninth Schedule before 24 April 1973 are protected. Those added later can be tested against the basic structure. Why it matters: 24 April 1973, the Kesavananda date, becomes the cut-off.

What UPSC asks: Prelims: limited amending power as a basic feature; the Art 31C extension struck down. Mains: Parliament’s amending power is limited (2019). Next likely angle: harmony of Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles as a basic feature.

→ Directive Principles The FR–DPSP balance that Minerva Mills protects.

Mains box: analysis and answer points

  • 2019: limited amending power cannot be enlarged into absolute power.

Practice

Practice MCQs (8)

Q1 · Battle IAS practice

Which one of the following best states the 'basic structure' doctrine?

Answer (d) & explanation

The basic structure doctrine, laid down in Kesavananda Bharati (1973), holds that Parliament's power under Article 368 reaches every part of the Constitution, including Part III, but it does not extend to damaging or destroying the Constitution's essential features. The Constitution itself does not list these features; the courts identify them case by case, for example supremacy of the Constitution, judicial review, secularism, federalism and free and fair elections. So the doctrine is a limit on the content of an amendment, not a bar on amending any Part.

Q2 · Battle IAS practice

Consider the following statements:
1. Judicial review in India can be completely excluded by an ordinary Act of Parliament.
2. A court may decline to examine a petition that raises only a hypothetical or academic question.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer (b) & explanation

Statement 2 is correct: courts decide live disputes between parties and normally decline hypothetical or academic questions, as when the matter has become infructuous. The President's advisory reference under Article 143 is a separate, special route. Statement 1 is incorrect: judicial review rests on the Constitution itself (Articles 13, 32, 226), and in Minerva Mills (1980) and L. Chandra Kumar (1997) the Court held it part of the basic structure. Not even a constitutional amendment, let alone an ordinary Act, can wholly exclude it.

Q3 · Battle IAS practice

In Waman Rao v. Union of India (1981), the Supreme Court held that amendments to the Ninth Schedule made after a certain date are open to basic-structure review. That date is

Answer (a) & explanation

In Waman Rao v. Union of India (1981), the Supreme Court held that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule before 24 April 1973, the date of the Kesavananda Bharati judgment, remain protected, while amendments adding laws to the Schedule after that date can be tested against the basic structure. The date was chosen because the basic structure doctrine itself began on that day. I. R. Coelho (2007) later confirmed that post-1973 Ninth Schedule laws can be reviewed for violating basic-feature rights.

Q4 · Battle IAS practice

The 24th Amendment Act, 1971 described Parliament's power to amend the Constitution under Article 368 as

Answer (b) & explanation

The 24th Amendment Act, 1971 added Article 368(1), which says that Parliament may amend the Constitution 'in exercise of its constituent power'. It also added Article 13(4), so that Article 13 does not apply to an amendment, and made the President's assent to an amendment bill obligatory. These changes answered Golaknath (1967), which had treated an amendment as 'law' under Article 13 and so barred the abridgement of Fundamental Rights. Kesavananda Bharati (1973) upheld the 24th Amendment.

Q5 · Battle IAS practice

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by each House of Parliament separately. Statement-II: If the two Houses disagree on such a bill, the President can summon a joint sitting to resolve the deadlock.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Answer (c) & explanation

Statement-I is correct: under Article 368(2), an amendment bill must be passed by each House separately by the special majority. Statement-II is incorrect: the joint sitting under Article 108 is available only for ordinary bills when the Houses disagree; it does not apply to Money Bills or to Constitution Amendment Bills. If one House rejects an amendment bill, the bill simply fails. Since Statement-II is false, it cannot explain Statement-I.

Q6 · Battle IAS practice

With reference to amendments of the 1960s and 1970s, consider the following statements:
1. The 40th Amendment empowered Parliament to specify the limits of territorial waters, the continental shelf and the exclusive economic zone.
2. The 11th Amendment provided that the election of the President or Vice-President cannot be challenged on the ground of a vacancy in the electoral college.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer (c) & explanation

Both statements are correct. The 40th Amendment Act, 1976 amended Article 297 so that the limits of the territorial waters, the continental shelf, the exclusive economic zone and other maritime zones are specified by Parliament by law; it also added more Acts to the Ninth Schedule. The 11th Amendment Act, 1961 changed the Vice-President's election from a joint meeting to an electoral college of both Houses, and inserted Article 71(4), under which an election of the President or Vice-President cannot be challenged on the ground of any vacancy in the electoral college.

Q7 · Battle IAS practice

With reference to the amending procedure, consider the following statements:
1. An amendment of Article 368 itself needs ratification by the legislatures of at least half of the States.
2. In Kihoto Hollohan (1992), paragraph 7 of the Tenth Schedule was struck down because it had not been ratified by the States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer (c) & explanation

Both statements are correct. Clause (e) of the proviso to Article 368(2) lists 'the provisions of this article' itself, so any change to the amending procedure needs ratification by half the States. In Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992), the majority held that paragraph 7 of the Tenth Schedule, which barred the jurisdiction of all courts in defection matters, in effect changed the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts under Articles 136, 226 and 227. Since it was not ratified, paragraph 7 was invalid, but it was severed and the rest of the Schedule survived.

Q8 · Battle IAS practice

Consider the following statements:
1. The power to legislate on a subject does not include power over matters incidental or ancillary to it.
2. In India, the residuary power of legislation belongs to the State legislatures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer (d) & explanation

Both statements are incorrect. Courts read each entry in the Seventh Schedule Lists in the widest sense, so the power over a subject includes all incidental and ancillary matters that can fairly be said to be comprehended in it (United Provinces v. Atiqa Begum, 1940; Navinchandra Mafatlal, 1954). Statement 2 is wrong: under Article 248 and Entry 97 of the Union List, the residuary power belongs to Parliament, a feature taken from Canada. In the USA and Australia the residue lies with the States, which is the model the distractor borrows.

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In 150 words, explain the significance of Basic Structure Doctrine with one recent example.

Flashcards (9)

Kesavananda Bharati: bench, majority,

date? 13 judges, 7:6, 24 April 1973.

Whose opinion decided Kesavananda?

Justice H.R. Khanna's.

Did Kesavananda hold the right to property

basic? No.

First case to strike down an amendment

using the doctrine? Indira Gandhi v Raj Narain (1975), on Art 329A(4).

Which amendment put the PM's election

beyond judicial review? The 39th (1975), not the 44th.

Which clauses did the 42nd Amendment

add to Art 368? Clauses (4) and (5): no judicial review, no limits.

What did Minerva Mills (1980) strike down?

Art 368(4)-(5) and the expanded Art 31C.

Which two things did Minerva Mills call

basic? Limited amending power (with judicial review) and harmony between FR and DPSP.

What cut-off did Waman Rao (1981) set?

24 April 1973 for Ninth Schedule protection.

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