Agriculture, food security and allied sectors: previous-year questions
65 real UPSC Prelims questions (2011–2026) with the official answer and a clear explanation. 11 of them came in the last five papers.
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Questions per year, counted from the official papers.
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Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) ?
- 1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas
- 2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions
- 3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)
Select the answer using the code given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
Only objective 3 belongs to RAD (d). Item 3 is right: Rainfed Area Development (RAD), an area-based part of the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA), promotes Integrated Farming Systems. It grows crops along with horticulture, livestock, fishery and agro-forestry, so a farmer in a dry area has more than one income source when the rain fails. Item 1 is wrong: monoculture raises risk. Item 2 is wrong: irrigated rice has nothing to do with a rainfed programme.
Notice why it matters: about half of India's net sown area is rainfed, growing much of its pulses, millets and oilseeds. NMSA is one of the eight missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (2008). Related: Per Drop More Crop for micro-irrigation.
statement 2 talks of "irrigated regions" in a scheme named "Rainfed". Read the scheme's own name before the statements.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
Statement I :
Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
Statement II :
Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer (d) & explanation
Statement I is wrong, Statement II is right (d). Statement II is right: the USA makes ethanol mostly from corn (maize), while Brazil uses sugarcane. Statement I is wrong: it reverses the ranking. The USA is the largest ethanol producer, with over half of world output; Brazil is second. So options (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Notice India's place: now third, using cane juice, molasses, and surplus grains such as rice and maize. India reached 20% ethanol blending in petrol (E20) in 2025, five years ahead of the old target. The Global Biofuels Alliance, launched at India's G20 in 2023, includes the USA and Brazil.
Brazil's ethanol cars are famous, so it "feels" like number one. The USA produces more.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022-23 :
- I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
- II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
- III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
All three statements are correct (d). Statement I is right: in 2022-23, India grew over 75% of the world's turmeric and had more than 62% of world trade. Statement II is right: more than 30 varieties are grown in over 20 States. Statement III is right: the major producers are Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. These lines come from the government's note on setting up the National Turmeric Board (2023).
Notice the board, based at Nizamabad in Telangana, which promotes turmeric research, exports and value addition. Turmeric's active compound is curcumin. Famous GI-tagged varieties include Erode turmeric, Lakadong turmeric of Meghalaya and Kandhamal Haladi of Odisha.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission :
- I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
- II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Both statements are correct (c). The Rashtriya Gokul Mission (December 2014) develops and conserves indigenous bovine breeds. Statement II is right: it promotes native cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific way, through better breeding, artificial insemination and Gokul Grams. Statement I is right: most low-yielding desi animals belong to small and marginal farmers and landless labourers, so raising their milk yield helps the rural poor. Both lines come from the scheme's own description.
Notice the famous breeds: Gir, Sahiwal, Red Sindhi and Tharparkar cows, and the Murrah buffalo. The mission also uses sex-sorted semen and IVF. India is the world's largest milk producer.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. India is a member of the International Grains Council.
- 2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (a) & explanation
Only statement 1 is correct (a). Statement 1 is right: India is a member of the International Grains Council (IGC), based in London. It runs the Grains Trade Convention of 1995, shares market data and promotes cooperation in trade in wheat, maize, rice, barley and oilseeds. Statement 2 is wrong: membership is not a licence. Any country can export or import grain without joining; trade rules come from the WTO and national laws.
Notice the related Food Aid Convention, linked to the IGC, on food aid commitments. India is a top rice exporter, and its export curbs (such as on non-basmati rice in 2023, later eased) move world prices. Do not confuse the IGC with the FAO.
statement 2 makes a forum sound like a gatekeeper. Membership bodies rarely control who may trade.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements :
- 1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
- 2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.
- 3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Answer (d) & explanation
All three statements are correct (d). Statement 1 is right: the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP) has been a Central Sector scheme with 100% central funding since 2016. Statement 2 is right: it digitises cadastral maps and links them to the computerised Records of Rights. Statement 3 is right: Records of Rights are being transliterated into any of the 22 Eighth Schedule languages, so people can read them in their own language.
Notice the ULPIN, a 14-digit unique land parcel number, called "Bhu-Aadhaar", and NGDRS, a single system for registering property. The aim is conclusive titling, fewer land disputes and easier loans. The SVAMITVA scheme maps village homes using drones.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. India has more arable area than China.
- 2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
- 3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Only one statement is correct (a). Statement 1 is right: India has about 156 million hectares of arable land, among the largest in the world and more than China's roughly 120 million. Statement 2 is wrong: by the data used for the question, China irrigated a larger share of its farmland than India, where much farming still depends on the monsoon. Statement 3 is wrong: China's yields per hectare of rice and wheat are much higher than India's, thanks to more fertiliser, seeds and mechanisation.
Notice the lesson: India's problem is not land but productivity. Small fragmented holdings, rain-fed farming and low investment hold it back, which is why schemes stress micro-irrigation and seeds.
India's big farm area tempts you to tick all three. Area is not productivity.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following best describes the concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field'?
Answer (b) & explanation
Small farmers acting together as one large field (b). Under Small Farmer Large Field, neighbouring small and marginal farmers keep their own land but act as a group. They sow the same variety at the same time, buy seeds and fertiliser in bulk, hire machines jointly and sell together. This gives them the economies of scale of a big farm without giving up ownership. Option (a) describes refugee resettlement with collective farming. Option (c) describes land leasing to a company, where farmers give up control. Option (d) describes contract farming, where a company buys the crop.
Notice the link with Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs): the government's scheme to form 10,000 FPOs follows the same idea. The model came from Vietnam's rice sector.
option (d) also involves many small farmers. In SFLF the farmers themselves organise; no company is in charge.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
- 2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
- 3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
All three statements are correct (c). Statement 1 is right: nigerseed (Guizotia abyssinica) is one of the 22 crops that get a Minimum Support Price, among the kharif oilseeds. Statement 2 is right: it is sown as a kharif crop, often late in the season, on poor, sloping hilly soils where little else grows. Statement 3 is right: it is grown mainly in the tribal belts of Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra, and tribal families use its oil for cooking.
Notice the MSP list: 14 kharif crops, 6 rabi crops, plus jute and copra, with a Fair and Remunerative Price for sugarcane. The CACP recommends these prices. India still imports much of its edible oil, hence the oilseed missions.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
"System of Rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in :
- 1. Reduced seed requirement
- 2. Reduced methane production
- 3. Reduced electricity consumption
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
All three results follow (d). The System of Rice Intensification (SRI) changes how rice is grown. Item 1 is right: it transplants young single seedlings with wide spacing, so it needs far less seed, often only 5–8 kg per hectare against 40–50 kg normally. Item 2 is right: fields are not kept flooded; alternate wetting and drying lets air into the soil, which cuts the bacteria that produce methane. Item 3 is right: less water to pump means less electricity for tube wells.
Notice that SRI was developed in Madagascar in the 1980s by Henri de Laulanié. Notice related methods: Direct Seeded Rice and System of Wheat Intensification. SRI also often raises yields.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the "Tea Board" in India, consider the following statements :
- 1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
- 2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
- 3. The Tea Board's Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
- 4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Answer (d) & explanation
Statements 1 and 4 are correct (d). Statement 1 is right: the Tea Board was set up under the Tea Act, 1953, so it is a statutory body. Statement 4 is right: it keeps overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow to promote Indian tea in key markets. Statement 2 is wrong: like the Coffee, Rubber and Spices boards, it works under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, because these are export crops, not under the Agriculture Ministry. Statement 3 is wrong: its head office is in Kolkata; it is the Coffee Board that sits in Bengaluru.
Notice the other boards: the Spices Board is in Kochi and the Rubber Board in Kottayam. The commodity boards have long been under review for merger and reform.
plantation crops are farm products, but their Boards sit with Commerce. Bengaluru belongs to the Coffee Board.
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Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
In the context of India's preparation for Climate-Smart Agriculture, consider the following statements :
- 1. The 'Climate-Smart Village' approach in India is a part of a project led by the Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research programme.
- 2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France.
- 3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR's research centres.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
All three statements are correct (d). Statement 1 is right: Climate-Smart Villages in Haryana, Punjab, Bihar and other States were set up under CCAFS (Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security), an international research programme. They test farm practices that adapt to climate change and cut emissions. Statement 2 is right: CCAFS ran under the CGIAR, whose system office is in Montpellier, France. Statement 3 is right: ICRISAT at Patancheru, Hyderabad, is one of the CGIAR research centres.
Notice other CGIAR centres: IRRI (Philippines, rice), CIMMYT (Mexico, maize and wheat) and IWMI (Sri Lanka). India's own programme is NICRA (National Innovations in Climate Resilient Agriculture) of the ICAR.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
How is permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming?
- 1. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are predominant.
- 2. Conventional chemical farming can cause increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming.
- 3. Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in semi-arid regions but permaculture farming is not so easily possible in such regions.
- 4. Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in conventional chemical farming.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct (b). Permaculture designs a farm like a natural ecosystem, with many plants and animals working together and no chemicals. Statement 1 is right: it discourages monoculture, while chemical farming relies on it. Statement 2 is right: heavy irrigation and chemical fertilisers in conventional farming can raise soil salinity, which permaculture avoids. Statement 4 is right: mulching is central to permaculture, to keep moisture in and feed the soil. Statement 3 is wrong: permaculture suits dry and semi-arid areas well, because it saves water.
Notice that the term was coined by Bill Mollison and David Holmgren in 1970s Australia. Related Indian approaches include natural farming and Subhash Palekar's zero budget natural farming.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to 'palm oil', consider the following statements :
- 1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia.
- 2. The palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes.
- 3. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct (b). Statement 1 is wrong: the oil palm is native to West Africa, though Indonesia and Malaysia now grow most of the world's palm oil. Statement 2 is right: palm oil goes into lipsticks, perfumes, soaps, shampoos and processed food, because it is cheap and stable. Statement 3 is right: palm oil is a feedstock for biodiesel, especially in Indonesia and Malaysia.
Notice India's angle: India is the world's largest importer of palm oil and of edible oils. The National Mission on Edible Oils–Oil Palm (2021) aims to expand oil palm in the North-East and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Critics warn of deforestation and harm to biodiversity, as seen in South-east Asia.
today's production map points to Southeast Asia. The plant's original home is Africa.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Among the following, which one is the least water-efficient crop?
Answer (a) & explanation
Sugarcane is the least water-efficient crop (a). Sugarcane stays in the field for 10–18 months and needs about 1,500–2,500 mm of water. In India, roughly 2,000 litres or more go into one kilogram of sugar. Sunflower (b) needs only moderate water. Pearl millet (c), or bajra, is a hardy dryland crop that grows with little rain. Red gram (d), or arhar, is a deep-rooted pulse that also tolerates drought.
Notice that much of India's sugarcane is grown in water-scarce Maharashtra and Karnataka, which worsens groundwater stress. Drip irrigation can save a lot of water in sugarcane. 2023 was the International Year of Millets, which promoted water-thrifty crops such as bajra.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. In the case of all cereals, pulses and oil-seeds, the procurement at Minimum Support Price (MSP) is unlimited in any State/UT of India.
- 2. In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP is fixed in any State/UT at a level to which the market price will never rise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong because MSP is announced for 22 crops, but open-ended procurement happens mainly for wheat and rice, and only in some States. Pulses and oilseeds are bought under PM-AASHA (Price Support Scheme), usually only up to about 25% of output in a State. Statement 2 is wrong because MSP is a floor, not a ceiling. Market prices often rise above MSP, as with pulses and many oilseeds in recent years.
Notice that the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends MSP and the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approves it. Since 2018–19, MSP has been set at least 1.5 times the A2+FL cost of production. MSP has no legal backing.
"unlimited" and "never". Two absolute words make both statements fail.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture ?
- 1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of previous crop.
- 2. Without the need for nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible.
- 3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
All three are advantages of zero tillage (d). In zero tillage, the field is not ploughed before sowing. Statement 1 is right: machines like the Happy Seeder sow wheat straight into rice stubble, so farmers need not burn the residue. Statement 2 is right: Direct Seeded Rice drills paddy seed into the soil, with no nursery or transplanting, saving water and labour. Statement 3 is right: undisturbed soil keeps more organic matter, so carbon stays locked in the soil instead of escaping as CO₂.
Notice the wider package, called conservation agriculture: minimal tillage, crop residue cover and crop rotation. Zero tillage also saves diesel and lets wheat be sown on time after the rice harvest.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
According to India's National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels ?
- 1. Cassava
- 2. Damaged wheat grains
- 3. Groundnut seeds
- 4. Horse gram
- 5. Rotten potatoes
- 6. Sugar beet
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (a) & explanation
Cassava, damaged wheat, rotten potatoes and sugar beet are allowed (a). The National Policy on Biofuels, 2018 widened the raw materials for ethanol. It allows sugarcane juice, sugar beet and sweet sorghum (sugar crops); cassava, corn and other starchy crops; damaged food grains such as wheat and broken rice unfit for eating; and rotten potatoes. So items 1, 2, 5 and 6 are right. Items 3 and 4 are wrong: groundnut (an oilseed) and horse gram (a pulse) are food crops that are not on the list.
Notice the 2022 amendment, which advanced the target of 20% ethanol blending in petrol (E20) to 2025–26; India reached about 20% in 2025. Second-generation (2G) ethanol uses crop waste such as straw.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to pulse production in India, consider the following statements :
- 1. Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabi crop.
- 2. Green gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production.
- 3. In the last three decades, while the production of kharif pulses has increased, the production of rabi pulses has decreased.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (a) & explanation
Only statement 1 is correct (a). Statement 1 is right: black gram (urad) is grown in both kharif and rabi, especially in the south and in rice fallows. Statement 2 is wrong: gram (chickpea), a rabi crop, gives nearly half of India's pulses; green gram (moong) has a much smaller share. Statement 3 is wrong: rabi pulse output, led by chickpea, has grown strongly over the past three decades, so the statement is reversed.
Notice that India is the world's largest producer, consumer and importer of pulses. Pulses are legumes that fix nitrogen. The Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses (2025) aims to cut imports, focusing on tur, urad and masoor.
"gram" and "green gram" are different crops. Chickpea is the big one.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the following statements :
- 1. A substantial saving in seed material is made when 'bud chip settlings' are raised in a nursery and transplanted in the main field.
- 2. When direct planting of setts is done, the germination percentage is better with single-budded setts as compared to setts with many buds.
- 3. If bad weather conditions prevail when setts are directly planted, single-budded setts have better survival as compared to large setts.
- 4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settlings prepared from tissue culture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1 and 4 are correct (c). Statement 1 is right: in the bud chip method, only a small chip with one bud is raised in a nursery and then transplanted, saving about 80% of seed cane. Statement 2 is wrong: when planted directly in the field, single-bud setts dry out and germinate poorly; two- or three-bud setts do better. Statement 3 is wrong for the same reason: in bad weather, larger setts survive better. Statement 4 is right: tissue culture produces disease-free settlings for planting.
Notice the Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative (SSI), which combines nursery-raised seedlings, wide spacing and drip irrigation. Uttar Pradesh is the top sugarcane producer; Maharashtra often leads in sugar.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.