UPSC Prelims 2013 Economy questions: topic-wise weightage
UPSC Prelims 2013 asked 21 economy questions in GS Paper I, spread over 5 topics. See the economy weightage for 2013 below, then attempt each question with the official answer and an explanation.
Economy 2013: questions by topic
- Money, banking, monetary policy and inflation9
- Fiscal policy, budget and taxation2
- External sector and international economic institutions3
- Agriculture, food security and allied sectors2
- Industry, infrastructure, poverty, employment and social sector5
Counted from the 21 questions on this page, tagged by topic in the Battle IAS PYQ bank.
Seeing 21 Economy questions spread over 5 topics can feel overwhelming. That's exactly why the Battle IAS PYQ Book maps every question topic by topic, so you know what to study first. Download free sample
Money, banking, monetary policy and inflation 9
The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of
- 1. liquidity of assets
- 2. branch expansion
- 3. merger of banks
- 4. winding-up of banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Answer (d) & explanation
All four are correct (d). Under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, the RBI regulates banks' liquidity through the CRR and SLR (1), licenses and controls branch expansion (2), approves mergers and amalgamations, and can impose schemes on weak banks (3), and can apply for the winding up of a bank or place it under a moratorium (4). So options (a), (b) and (c) leave out real powers.
Notice the recent uses: the RBI-led rescue of Yes Bank (2020), the merger of Lakshmi Vilas Bank with DBS (2020), and the 2020 amendment bringing cooperative banks under fuller RBI supervision. Branch authorisation has since been liberalised for scheduled banks. Deposit insurance up to ₹5 lakh comes from DICGC. Trap: winding up seems a court matter, but RBI starts it.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates that the
Answer (d) & explanation
A tight money policy is correct (d). Raising the Bank Rate makes central-bank credit costlier, so banks raise their own lending rates and credit shrinks. This is a tight or dear money policy, used to fight inflation. (a) is wrong: market interest rates tend to rise, not fall. (b) is wrong: the central bank still lends, only at a higher rate. (c) is wrong: an easy money policy would cut rates.
Notice the present tools: the repo rate is now the main signal, with the Bank Rate aligned to the Marginal Standing Facility rate. The RBI raised the repo rate by 250 basis points in 2022–23 to fight inflation, then cut it through 2025. The Monetary Policy Committee has six members. Trap: higher rates mean tighter, not easier, money.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. Inflation benefits the debtors.
- 2. Inflation benefits the bond-holders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Statement 1 only is correct (a). Inflation lowers the real value of money. A debtor gains because he repays a fixed sum with money that buys less than when he borrowed (1). Statement 2 is wrong: a bond-holder loses, because the fixed interest and principal he receives buy less than before; inflation erodes the real return. So (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the other winners and losers: fixed-income earners and pensioners lose, while businesses and borrowers, including governments with large debts, gain. That is why governments issue inflation-indexed bonds, such as India's Capital Indexed Bonds and the 2013 Inflation Indexed Bonds linked to WPI and CPI. Unexpected inflation moves wealth from lenders to borrowers. Trap: 'bond-holder' is a lender, not a borrower.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following liquid assets :
- 1. Demand deposits with the banks
- 2. Time deposits with the banks
- 3. Savings deposits with the banks
- 4. Currency
The correct sequence of these assets in the decreasing order of liquidity is
Answer (d) & explanation
The order 4–1–3–2 is correct (d). Currency is the most liquid asset, since it can be spent at once (4). Demand deposits in current accounts can be withdrawn at any time by cheque or transfer (1). Savings deposits are also withdrawable but have some limits on transactions (3). Time deposits (fixed deposits) are locked in for a period and carry penalties for early withdrawal, so they are the least liquid (2). (a), (b) and (c) give the wrong order.
Notice the money measures: M1 = currency with the public + demand deposits + other deposits with RBI; M3 (broad money) adds time deposits. Savings deposits are counted as demand deposits in M1. The more liquid the asset, the lower its interest. Trap: (b) puts demand deposits last.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
In the context of Indian economy, ‘Open Market Operations’ refers to
Answer (c) & explanation
Purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI is correct (c). Open Market Operations are the RBI's buying and selling of government securities in the market to manage liquidity. Buying securities pays out money and adds liquidity; selling them absorbs money. (a) is wrong: banks borrowing from the RBI happens through the repo window or Marginal Standing Facility. (b) is wrong: bank lending to industry is ordinary credit, not OMO. (d) fails because (c) is correct.
Notice the variants: 'Operation Twist' (2019–20) bought long-term and sold short-term bonds at the same time, and G-SAP (2021) was a pre-announced bond-buying programme. OMOs are part of quantitative monetary tools, with CRR and SLR. Trap: (a) is a liquidity tool too, but not OMO.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes the lending to
Answer (d) & explanation
All of the above is correct (d). Banks must lend a set share of their credit to priority sectors, which include agriculture (a), micro and small enterprises (b) and weaker sections (c), along with education, housing, export credit, social infrastructure and renewable energy. So each single option is only part of the answer.
Notice the targets: domestic scheduled commercial banks must give 40% of adjusted net bank credit to priority sectors, including 18% to agriculture (10% to small and marginal farmers), 7.5% to micro enterprises and 12% to weaker sections. Small finance banks have a 60% target, raised for some. Shortfalls go to the RIDF with NABARD, and Priority Sector Lending Certificates can be traded. The RBI revised the framework in 2025. Trap: picking one familiar sector misses the 'all' option.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
A rise in general level of prices may be caused by
- 1. an increase in the money supply
- 2. a decrease in the aggregate level of output
- 3. an increase in the effective demand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Answer (d) & explanation
All three are correct (d). Prices rise when more money chases fewer goods. An increase in the money supply puts more money in people's hands (1). A decrease in output, from a drought or supply shock, cuts the goods available (2). An increase in effective demand, the demand backed by purchasing power, pushes prices up (3). So options (a), (b) and (c) leave out real causes.
Notice the types: demand-pull inflation (1, 3) and cost-push or supply-side inflation (2), such as the vegetable price spikes from erratic monsoons in India. The quantity theory of money (MV = PT) links money supply to prices. The RBI's 4% CPI target under flexible inflation targeting guides policy. Trap: all three are textbook causes.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Supply of money remaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be
Answer (b) & explanation
An increase in the rate of interest is correct (b). The rate of interest is the price of money. If the demand for money rises while the supply stays the same, money becomes scarcer and its price, the interest rate, rises, in line with Keynes's liquidity preference theory. (a) is wrong: a higher interest rate may later cool prices, but the direct result is a rate rise. (c) is the opposite. (d) is wrong: income and employment are not directly raised; higher rates may even slow investment.
Notice the policy link: the RBI manages liquidity so that the overnight call money rate stays near the repo rate. When demand for money spikes, as at advance-tax time each quarter, short-term rates jump. Trap: (a) describes a possible later effect, not the immediate one.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following grants/grant direct credit assistance to rural households?
- 1. Regional Rural Banks
- 2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
- 3. Land Development Banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Answer (c) & explanation
Regional Rural Banks and Land Development Banks are correct (c). Regional Rural Banks (1975) lend directly to small farmers, artisans and rural households (1). Land Development Banks, now called Primary Cooperative Agriculture and Rural Development Banks, give long-term loans to farmers for land improvement, wells and machinery (3). Item 2 is wrong: NABARD is an apex development bank that refinances these banks and cooperatives; it does not lend directly to households. So (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice the structure: NABARD (1982) was set up on the Shivaraman Committee's advice and manages the RIDF. RRBs are owned by the Centre (50%), sponsor bank (35%) and State (15%), and were amalgamated to 28 from May 2025. Trap: NABARD sounds rural, but it lends to banks, not people.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Fiscal policy, budget and taxation 2
In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for
Answer (a) & explanation
Economic development is correct (a). Deficit financing means the government spends more than it earns and fills the gap by borrowing or, in the old sense, by printing money through the central bank. In planned India, it was used to fund development spending under the Five-Year Plans, such as dams, steel plants and infrastructure, when tax revenue was not enough. (b) is wrong: deficit financing adds to debt rather than redeeming it. (c) is wrong: balance-of-payments gaps are met through reserves or IMF help. (d) is wrong: it does not reduce foreign debt.
Notice the risk: excessive deficit financing fuels inflation. The FRBM Act, 2003 set limits, and the Centre's fiscal deficit target is 4.4% of GDP for 2025–26, with a shift to a debt-to-GDP anchor from 2026–27. Trap: deficit financing is a means, not a debt-reduction tool.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effect?
Answer (d) & explanation
Creating new money is correct (d). Creating new money to finance a deficit, by borrowing from the central bank, which prints it (monetisation), adds fresh money to the economy without any matching output, so it is the most inflationary. (a) is wrong: repaying public debt returns money to holders but is not strongly inflationary. (b) is wrong: borrowing from the public only moves existing money from people to the government. (c) is less inflationary than (d): borrowing from banks uses existing deposits, though it can expand credit somewhat.
Notice the history: India ended automatic monetisation through ad hoc Treasury Bills in 1997, and the FRBM Act bars direct RBI funding except in special cases. During COVID-19, the RBI bought bonds in the secondary market under G-SAP. Trap: all deficits are not equally inflationary.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
External sector and international economic institutions 3
The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of
Answer (a) & explanation
Option (a) is correct. The balance of payments is a systematic record of all economic transactions between a country's residents and the rest of the world over a period, usually a year. It covers the current account, with trade in goods and services, income and transfers such as remittances, and the capital and financial account, with FDI, portfolio flows, loans and changes in reserves. (b), (c) and (d) are wrong because each describes only a part of the BoP: exports alone, government transactions alone or capital movements alone.
Notice India's pattern: a large merchandise trade deficit, offset by strong services exports (about US$387 billion in 2024–25) and remittances (about US$135 billion, the world's highest), keeps the current account deficit small. Trap: the stem's 'import and export' wording means all transactions, not goods only.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following constitute Capital Account?
- 1. Foreign Loans
- 2. Foreign Direct Investment
- 3. Private Remittances
- 4. Portfolio Investment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Answer (b) & explanation
Items 1, 2 and 4 are correct (b). The capital account (strictly the capital and financial account) records flows that create assets or liabilities: foreign loans such as external commercial borrowings and aid (1), foreign direct investment (2) and portfolio investment (4). Item 3 is wrong: private remittances are unilateral transfers, recorded in the current account under secondary income. So (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice India's case: remittances of about US$135 billion in 2024–25 make India the world's largest recipient and help finance the trade deficit. Capital account convertibility remains partial in India; the Tarapore Committees (1997, 2006) set out a roadmap. Trap: remittances are inflows of money, but they create no asset or liability.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following groups of items is included in India’s foreign-exchange reserves?
Answer (b) & explanation
Foreign-currency assets, gold and SDRs is correct (b). India's foreign-exchange reserves have four parts: foreign currency assets (the largest, held in dollars, euros and others), gold held by the RBI, Special Drawing Rights, and the reserve tranche position in the IMF. (a), (c) and (d) are wrong because loans from foreign countries or the World Bank are liabilities, not reserves.
Notice the scale: India's reserves have been in the range of US$650–700 billion, among the world's largest; they hit a record above US$700 billion in September 2024. The RBI has been adding gold and brought tonnes back from the Bank of England in 2024. In 1991, reserves fell to about two weeks of imports, forcing gold to be pledged. Trap: borrowed money boosts liquidity but is not a reserve asset.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Agriculture, food security and allied sectors 2
Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in
Answer (d) & explanation
None of the above is correct (d). Contour bunding means building earth embankments along the contours of sloping land to slow runoff, hold water and stop soil erosion by water on gentle hill slopes and undulating land. (a) is wrong: wind erosion in desert margins is checked by shelter belts and windbreaks. (b) is wrong: low, flat floodplains need embankments or drainage, not contour bunds. (c) is wrong: weed spread is not controlled by bunds.
Notice the related methods: terracing on steep slopes, contour ploughing, strip cropping, check dams and gully plugging. Watershed programmes such as PMKSY-Watershed Development (WDC 2.0) use contour bunds widely in the Deccan. Trap: options describe other erosion settings that contour bunds do not suit.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following crops :
- 1. Cotton
- 2. Groundnut
- 3. Rice
- 4. Wheat
Which of these are Kharif crops?
Answer (c) & explanation
Cotton, groundnut and rice are correct (c). Kharif crops are sown with the south-west monsoon (June–July) and harvested in autumn (September–October). They include rice, cotton, groundnut, maize, jowar, bajra, soybean, tur and jute (1, 2, 3). Item 4 is wrong: wheat is a rabi crop, sown in winter (October–December) and harvested in spring. So (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice the related seasons: rabi crops include wheat, barley, mustard and gram; zaid crops such as watermelon, cucumber and moong grow in the short summer between rabi and kharif. Groundnut is also grown in rabi in the south, but it is mainly a kharif crop. The government announces MSPs for kharif crops in June. Trap: wheat is the classic rabi crop.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Industry, infrastructure, poverty, employment and social sector 5
Disguised unemployment generally means
Answer (c) & explanation
Marginal productivity of labour is zero is correct (c). In disguised unemployment, more people work on a job, often a family farm, than are actually needed. If some of them are removed, total output does not fall, so their marginal productivity is zero. They appear employed but are effectively surplus. (a) is wrong: it describes open unemployment. (b) is wrong: lack of alternatives may explain it but does not define it. (d) is wrong: low productivity is not the same as zero marginal product.
Notice the theory: Arthur Lewis's dual-sector model (1954) argued that surplus farm labour could move to industry without reducing farm output. India still has about 46% of its workforce in agriculture, a sign of hidden underemployment. Other types: seasonal, structural, frictional and cyclical. Trap: 'low' productivity is not 'zero'.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?
Answer (d) & explanation
Thermal power is correct (d). Thermal power plants use huge volumes of water for cooling condensers and making steam, and account for the largest share, close to 90%, of industrial water withdrawal in India. (a) is wrong: engineering industries use far less. (b) is wrong: paper and pulp is water-intensive per tonne, but its total use is much smaller. (c) is wrong: textiles, especially dyeing, use a lot of water, but still far less than power.
Notice the rules: since 2015 the environment ministry has capped water use at 3.5 m³ per MWh for new plants, and plants within 50 km of sewage plants must use treated sewage water. Water shortages have shut plants in drought years, as in Maharashtra. Dry cooling and air-cooled condensers cut use. Trap: per-tonne intensity differs from total consumption.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?
Answer (a) & explanation
Promoting skill development is correct (a). A demographic dividend is the growth boost from a large working-age population. It pays off only if those people are employable and productive, so skill development, along with education and jobs, is the key step. (b) is wrong: social security helps welfare but does not unlock the dividend directly. (c) is wrong: lowering infant mortality matters for health, but it does not raise the productivity of today's workers. (d) is wrong: privatising higher education is not a necessary condition.
Notice India's case: about two-thirds of Indians are of working age, and the window lasts until about the 2040s. Programmes include Skill India Mission (2015), PMKVY, the PM Internship Scheme (2024) and NEP 2020's vocational focus. Only a small share of the workforce has formal skill training. Trap: health and welfare are worthy but not the core lever.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if
Answer (c) & explanation
Capital formation in X is correct (c). Capital formation, investment in machines, factories, infrastructure and human capital, raises a country's capacity to produce, so it leads to economic growth. (a) is wrong: technical progress in the world need not reach country X. (b) is wrong: population growth may add workers, but without capital and jobs it can even lower per-capita income. (d) is wrong: growth in world trade need not raise X's output.
Notice the theory: the Harrod–Domar model links growth to the savings and investment rate, and the Solow model adds technology. India's gross fixed capital formation is about 30% of GDP, and the government has raised public capex to over ₹11 lakh crore. Trap: global trends are outside X's control and so not 'necessary'.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the
Answer (d) & explanation
Money value of final goods and services is correct per UPSC's key (d), though it is a simplified definition. National income is measured as the money value of all final goods and services produced in a year; counting only final goods avoids double counting of intermediate goods. Strictly, national income is Net National Product at factor cost, which also adds net factor income from abroad and subtracts depreciation, so (d) is the best of the options, not a perfect definition. (a) is partly right but vague. (b) is wrong: it leaves out government spending and net exports. (c) is wrong: personal income excludes retained profits and taxes.
Notice the update: India's GDP series is being moved to a 2022–23 base year. Trap: (b) misses two parts of C + I + G + (X − M).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
All years by topic
Every question from 2011 to 2026, grouped by syllabus topic, with year-wise trends.