International Relations and Current Affairs: previous-year questions
135 real UPSC Prelims questions (2011–2026) with the official answer and a clear explanation. 63 of them came in the last five papers.
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Questions per year, counted from the official papers.
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Consider the following pairs :
| Country | Important reason for being in the news recently
| 1. Chad | Setting up of permanent military base by China
| 2. Guinea | Suspension of Constitution and Government by military
| 3. Lebanon | Severe and prolonged economic depression
| 4. Tunisia | Suspension of Parliament by President
How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?
Answer (c) & explanation
Three pairs are correctly matched (c). Pair 2 is right: Guinea's army ousted President Condé in September 2021 and suspended the constitution. Pair 3 is right: the World Bank called Lebanon's economic collapse, from 2019, one of the worst anywhere since the mid-19th century. Pair 4 is right: Tunisia's President Kais Saied suspended parliament in July 2021. Pair 1 is wrong: Chad was in the news for President Idriss Déby's death in 2021 and military rule; China has no base there. China's only acknowledged overseas military base is in Djibouti, opened in 2017.
Notice the wave of coups in Africa's Sahel and west: Mali, Burkina Faso, Guinea and Niger, many turning away from France and towards Russia.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media ?
Answer (c) & explanation
FOBS puts a missile in orbit and brings it down on a target (c). The Fractional Orbital Bombardment System is a Soviet idea from the 1960s. It sends a warhead into a partial low orbit and brings it down over the target from any direction, even over the South Pole. This avoids early-warning radars, which mostly look north, and leaves no fixed path. Option (a) describes planetary defence against asteroids. Option (b) describes a planetary landing. Option (d) describes a comet mission, such as Rosetta.
Notice that reports of China's 2021 hypersonic glide test via orbit brought FOBS back into the news. The Outer Space Treaty (1967) bans placing nuclear weapons in orbit. India tested an anti-satellite missile in Mission Shakti (2019).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
- 2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong: the India Sanitation Coalition was launched in 2015 at FICCI as a platform where companies, NGOs, donors and government work together on sanitation. It is not funded by the Government of India and the WHO. Statement 2 is wrong: the National Institute of Urban Affairs (1976) is an autonomous research and training institute that supports the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs; it is not the Ministry's apex body. It runs studies and projects such as the Smart Cities and climate work.
Notice the trap: UPSC slips in words like "funded by" or "apex body" to make a mostly true line wrong. The matching government mission is the Swachh Bharat Mission, launched on 2 October 2014.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000 :
- 1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.
- 2. The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far.
- 3. Roger Federer received this award a maximum number of times compared to others.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct (c). Statement 1 is right: Tiger Woods won the first Laureus World Sportsman of the Year award in 2000. Statement 3 was right when asked: Roger Federer had won it the most times, five; Novak Djokovic has since equalled him with his fifth in 2024. Statement 2 is wrong: winners have come from tennis, athletics, golf, football and swimming, as well as Formula One (Michael Schumacher, Lewis Hamilton), so it is not mostly F1.
Notice India's Laureus moment: Sachin Tendulkar won the Laureus Sporting Moment award (2000–2020) in 2020, for being carried on teammates' shoulders after the 2011 World Cup win. The awards were founded by Daimler and Richemont.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics :
- 1. The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’.
- 2. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only statement 2 is correct (b). Statement 1 is wrong: the Tokyo 2020 Games, the 32nd Summer Olympics, held in 2021 because of COVID, had the motto "United by Emotion", not "A New World". The IOC also added "Together" to the Olympic motto, making it "Faster, Higher, Stronger – Together". Statement 2 is right: Tokyo added sport climbing, surfing, skateboarding and karate, and brought back baseball/softball.
Notice India's best Olympics till then: seven medals at Tokyo, including Neeraj Chopra's gold in javelin, India's first in athletics. At Paris 2024, India won six medals, and breaking made its debut. The 2028 Games are in Los Angeles.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship :
- 1. The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won.
- 2. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong: for the first ICC World Test Championship (2019–21), many series were cancelled because of COVID, so finalists were chosen by the percentage of points earned out of points contested, not by matches won. Statement 2 is wrong: New Zealand was placed ahead of England on that percentage, not because it won more matches. New Zealand then beat India in the final at Southampton in June 2021.
Notice the later winners: Australia beat India at The Oval in 2023, and South Africa beat Australia at Lord's in 2025. India has reached the final twice, in 2021 and 2023. The WTC was set up to give Test cricket a context and a champion.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct ?
- 1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
- 2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
- 3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
- 4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct (d). Under MPLADS, started in 1993, each MP gets ₹5 crore a year for local works. Statement 1 is right because the money must be used for durable community assets, such as roads, school buildings, health centres and drinking water. Statement 2 is right because at least 15% must go to areas with SC people and 7.5% to areas with ST people. Statement 4 is right because the district authority must inspect at least 10% of works each year. Statement 3 is wrong because MPLADS funds are non-lapsable: unspent money carries forward to the next year.
The scheme was suspended for two years in 2020–22 to fund COVID relief. Notice the 2023 guidelines, which moved funds to an online e-SAKSHI portal for tracking.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the
Answer (c) & explanation
The Atal Innovation Mission is under NITI Aayog (c). Set up in 2016, the AIM is housed in NITI Aayog. It runs Atal Tinkering Labs in schools, where students learn by building things with tools such as 3D printers and robotics kits. It also funds Atal Incubation Centres for start-ups, Atal Community Innovation Centres in under-served areas, and challenge grants. It does not belong to the Department of Science and Technology (a), the Labour Ministry (b) or the Skill Development Ministry (d), though it works with them.
The Cabinet extended AIM to 2028 as AIM 2.0 (2024). Notice the plan in Budget 2025 to set up 50,000 Atal Tinkering Labs in government schools within five years.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’.
- 2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
- 3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
- 4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 2 and 4 are correct (c). Statement 1 is wrong because the Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air belongs to UNTOC, the UN Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (Palermo, 2000). UNTOC has three protocols: on trafficking in persons, migrant smuggling and firearms. Statement 2 is right because UNCAC (2003, in force 2005) is the first legally binding global anti-corruption treaty. Statement 3 is wrong because the asset-recovery chapter (Chapter V) is in UNCAC, not UNTOC. Statement 4 is right because UNODC, based in Vienna, supports both.
India ratified both in 2011. Notice that 9 December is International Anti-Corruption Day, marking UNCAC's signing at Mérida, Mexico.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
- 1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
- 2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother minimum six crèche visits daily.
- 3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer (c) & explanation
Only statement 3 is correct (c). The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 raised paid maternity leave from 12 to 26 weeks. Statement 1 is wrong because up to 8 weeks of this can be taken before delivery, not three months. Statement 2 is wrong because establishments with 50 or more employees must provide a crèche, and the mother may visit it four times a day, not six. Statement 3 is right because a woman who already has two children gets only 12 weeks for later births. The Act also gave 12 weeks to adoptive and commissioning mothers, and allowed work from home where possible.
Notice the change since then: the Act is now part of the Code on Social Security, 2020, in force from November 2025. Mission Shakti's PMMVY gives cash support for the first child.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?
Answer (c) & explanation
The European Union adopted the GDPR (c). The EU's General Data Protection Regulation was adopted in April 2016 and came into force on 25 May 2018. It requires clear consent for using personal data, and gives rights such as the right to be forgotten, data portability and the right to know about breaches. Fines can reach 4% of global turnover or €20 million. It applies to any company handling EU residents' data, even outside Europe. Australia (a), Canada (b) and the USA (d) have their own, different laws.
Notice India's law: the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, which followed the Puttaswamy privacy ruling and the Justice B.N. Srikrishna Committee. Its Rules were notified in November 2025, with a Data Protection Board.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?
Answer (b) & explanation
The deal was signed with Russia (b). India and Russia signed the Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field in October 2018, at the Modi–Putin summit in New Delhi. It covers more units at Kudankulam, Tamil Nadu, a second site for Russian-designed reactors, and joint projects in third countries, such as Bangladesh's Rooppur plant. Japan (a) signed a civil nuclear deal with India in 2016. The UK (c) and USA (d) have other nuclear ties.
Kudankulam will have six VVER reactors of 1,000 MW each. Notice India's new nuclear push: the SHANTI Act (2025) opening the sector to private firms, and the target of 100 GW of nuclear power by 2047.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’ ?
- 1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
- 2. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (a) & explanation
Only statement 1 is correct (a). The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG), formed in 1974 after India's Pokhran test, is a group of 48 supplier countries that controls exports of nuclear material and technology. Members trade more freely with one another, so joining brings easier access to advanced nuclear technology (1). Statement 2 is wrong because NSG membership does not automatically make a country a member of the NPT. The two are separate, though most NSG members have signed the NPT.
India got a special NSG waiver in 2008 after the India–US nuclear deal. Its bid to become a full member is blocked mainly by China, which says only NPT members should join. Notice that India is a member of the MTCR, the Wassenaar Arrangement and the Australia Group.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
“Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following ?
Answer (d) & explanation
The World Justice Project releases the Rule of Law Index (d). The World Justice Project is an independent organisation based in Washington, DC. It publishes the Rule of Law Index every year, scoring countries on eight factors: limits on government power, absence of corruption, open government, fundamental rights, order and security, regulatory enforcement, and civil and criminal justice. It is not published by Amnesty International (a), the ICJ (b), or the UN human rights office (c).
Denmark and the Nordic countries top it, and India ranks around the 80s. Notice the other indices UPSC links to the wrong body: Corruption Perceptions Index (Transparency International), World Press Freedom Index (RSF) and Democracy Index (EIU).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts ?
Answer (d) & explanation
Yemen and South Sudan faced war-driven famine (d). In 2017–18, the UN warned of the world's worst humanitarian crisis in Yemen, caught in the Saudi-led war against the Houthis and a naval blockade. Millions faced famine and a cholera outbreak. In South Sudan, famine was formally declared in parts of Unity State in 2017 after the civil war. Both crises were caused by conflict. Angola and Zambia (a) and Morocco and Tunisia (b) had no such crises. Venezuela's crisis (c) was economic, with hyperinflation and mass migration.
Notice the more recent cases: the UN-backed IPC confirmed famine in Gaza in August 2025 and in parts of Sudan (Darfur), where the war began in 2023.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
- 2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
- 3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only statement 2 is correct (b). Statement 1 is wrong because, under Section 23 of the RTE Act, 2009, minimum teacher qualifications are set by the academic authority named by the Centre. That authority is the NCTE, not a State council. Statement 2 is right because passing the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET), held under NCTE guidelines, is compulsory for teaching Classes 1–8. Statement 3 is wrong because over 90% of teacher-education institutions are privately run, not government ones. The Justice J. S. Verma Commission (2012) pointed this out.
The CTET is held by the CBSE. In 2025, the Supreme Court said TET is compulsory for serving teachers too. Notice the reform under NEP 2020: the four-year Integrated Teacher Education Programme (ITEP).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
- 2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (a) & explanation
Only statement 1 is correct (a). The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 combined several older food laws, including the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954, the Fruit Products Order and the Milk and Milk Products Order, into one law (1). Statement 2 is wrong because FSSAI, set up in 2008, is a statutory body under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. It is headed by a Chairperson, with a CEO, and it is not under the Director General of Health Services.
FSSAI sets food standards, licenses food businesses, and runs campaigns such as Eat Right India and the trans-fat limit of 2% (2022). Notice the State Food Safety Index and FSSAI's recent moves on front-of-pack labels.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
The term “two-state solution” is sometime mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of
Answer (b) & explanation
The "two-state solution" is about Israel (b). It means an independent State of Palestine next to Israel, roughly along the 1967 borders, with East Jerusalem as Palestine's capital. The idea goes back to the UN Partition Plan of 1947 and is the basis of the Oslo Accords (1993–95). It has nothing to do with China (a), Iraq (c) or Yemen (d). India officially supports a sovereign, independent and viable Palestinian state living side by side and at peace with Israel.
After the Gaza war that began in October 2023, France, the UK, Canada, Australia and others recognised Palestine in September 2025. Notice that India recognised Palestine back in 1988, and in 2025 it voted for the UN's New York Declaration on the two-state solution.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to
Answer (d) & explanation
The GI Act was passed to meet India's WTO obligations (d). The WTO's TRIPS Agreement (1995), Articles 22–24, requires members to protect geographical indications: names that link a product's quality or reputation to the place it comes from. India passed the GI Act in 1999, and it came into force in 2003. Darjeeling tea was the first Indian GI (2004). The GI Registry in Chennai, under DPIIT, registers them, and a GI lasts 10 years at a time, renewable. The ILO (a), IMF (b) and UNCTAD (c) have no role here.
India now has over 650 GIs, with Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu leading. Notice that TRIPS gives wines and spirits stronger protection. India wants the same for products like Basmati.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’ ?
Answer (a) & explanation
The Additional Protocol brings India's civilian reactors under IAEA safeguards (a). India signed an India-specific safeguards agreement after the 2008 nuclear deal and ratified the Additional Protocol in 2014. It gives the IAEA more information and access, but only for the civilian facilities India has declared and placed under safeguards. That is 22 or more reactors. Military sites stay outside (b). The protocol gives no right to buy uranium from the NSG (c), since that came from the 2008 waiver. It does not make India an NSG member (d).
India split its civil and military nuclear facilities under the separation plan (2006). Notice that the protocol is part of the case India makes for NSG membership.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.