Schemes, reports, indices and other current affairs: previous-year questions
62 real UPSC Prelims questions (2011–2026) with the official answer and a clear explanation. 32 of them came in the last five papers.
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Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry ?
- 1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.
- 2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Answer (c) & explanation
Both statements describe the significance (c). Oeko-Tex Standard 100 is an international label showing that a textile has been tested for harmful substances. Statement 1 is right: it lets Indian exporters compete in high-end markets that want chemical-free products. Statement 2 is right: it confirms Eri silk meets international safety, environmental and quality standards, opening premium, eco-conscious markets in Europe and elsewhere. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice Eri silk's story: called "peace silk" or ahimsa silk, because the moth is allowed to leave the cocoon before the silk is spun. It is made mainly in Assam and the North-East. India's other silks are mulberry, tasar and muga, the golden silk found only in Assam.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India :
- I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure.
- II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings.
- III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.
Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ?
- 1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.
- 2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.
- 3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Answer (b) & explanation
Relationships 1 and 2 are correct (b). Sagarmala (2015, Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways) aims at port-led development. Relationship 1 is right: growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, plus better global port rankings, is evidence that it works. Relationship 2 is right: Sagarmala 2.0 builds on the same aim with innovation and shipbuilding, linked to Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047. Relationship 3 is wrong: building on an aim is not contradicting it. So options (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the four pillars: port modernisation, port connectivity, port-led industrialisation and coastal community development. Also related: Maritime India Vision 2030 and Amrit Kaal Vision 2047. Vizhinjam and Vadhavan are big new ports.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India :
- 1. It aims to enhance India’s air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.
- 2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India’s strategic autonomy.
- 3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (a) & explanation
All three statements are correct (a). The Prime Minister announced Mission Sudarshan Chakra on 15 August 2025. Statement 1 is right: it aims to strengthen air defence, ballistic missile defence and offensive strike capability. Statement 2 is right: it is designed for rapid, precise and powerful responses, reinforcing strategic autonomy. Statement 3 is right: it aims to cover strategic and civilian sites, including public places, with a nationwide security shield by 2035. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the name: it comes from Lord Krishna's discus, which both protects and strikes. The plan builds on systems like S-400, Akash and the indigenous air defence used in Operation Sindoor (May 2025). It is often compared to Israel's Iron Dome.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India ?
- 1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets
- 2. T-90 MK-III Tanks
- 3. Akula Class Submarine
Select the answer using the code given below :
Answer (a) & explanation
The Su-30MKI and T-90 are made in India (a). Item 1 is right: HAL Nashik builds the Su-30MKI under licence from Russia. Item 2 is right: the Heavy Vehicles Factory, Avadi (Tamil Nadu) builds the T-90 "Bhishma" tank under licence. Item 3 is wrong: the Akula-class is a Russian nuclear-powered attack submarine; India only leased one, INS Chakra, and never built it. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice India's own submarine line: the Arihant-class nuclear ballistic missile submarines are built at Visakhapatnam, and the Kalvari (Scorpène) class at Mazagon Dock, Mumbai, with French help. Indigenous platforms like the Tejas fighter and Arjun tank support the Make in India defence push.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Answer (d) & explanation
The pair 33 Corps : Srinagar is wrong (d). 33 Corps (Trishakti Corps) has its headquarters at Sukna near Siliguri, guarding Sikkim and the Siliguri Corridor. Srinagar hosts 15 Corps (Chinar Corps). Option (a) is correct: 3 Corps (Spear Corps) is at Dimapur. Option (b) is correct: 4 Corps (Gajraj Corps) is at Tezpur. Option (c) is correct: 14 Corps (Fire and Fury) is at Leh, facing Ladakh and the Siachen glacier.
Notice the structure: the Army has seven operational Commands, plus a training command, divided into Corps. The Siliguri Corridor, the "Chicken's Neck", is only about 22 km wide, which is why Trishakti Corps is so vital.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct ?
- 1. The new standard is known as IS 19445 : 2025.
- 2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies.
- 3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (c). Statement 1 is right: the Bureau of Indian Standards issued IS 19445 : 2025, India's first national standard to test and assess bomb disposal systems. Statement 2 is right: one common test standard improves interoperability of equipment across police, armed forces and security agencies. Statement 3 is wrong: it was developed with DRDO's Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory (TBRL), Chandigarh, with no Russian partner. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice the purpose: earlier, agencies tested equipment like bomb suits, containment vessels and robots against foreign standards. A domestic standard helps indigenous makers under Atmanirbhar Bharat. BIS works under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs and gained statutory status in 1986.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
‘X’, born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify X :
Answer (c) & explanation
X is John Clarke (c). John Clarke, born in Cambridge, England, shared the 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics while a professor at the University of California, Berkeley. He won with Michel Devoret and John Martinis for showing macroscopic quantum tunnelling in an electric circuit. Option (a) is wrong: Devoret was born in France. Option (b) is wrong: Richard Robson (Chemistry 2025) was born in England but works in Melbourne, Australia. Option (d) is wrong: Joel Mokyr (Economics 2025) was born in the Netherlands.
Notice why the physics prize matters: their experiments with superconducting circuits in the 1980s laid the base for today's quantum computers. India's own National Quantum Mission (2023) aims to build 50–1,000 qubit machines.
Robson fits "born in the UK" but fails the second clue: his university is in Australia.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct ?
- 1. The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments.
- 2. They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14.
- 3. There is a limitation on the number of ‘Wild Cards’ a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Answer (a) & explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per UPSC (a). Statement 1 is right: the four majors, the Australian Open, Roland Garros, Wimbledon and the US Open, share governance through the Grand Slam Board, which writes common rules. Statement 2 is right: entry is open to internationally ranked players who meet the age rules. Statement 3 is wrong: each tournament gives its own wild cards, and there is no cap on how many a player can receive. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the surfaces: the Australian and US Opens are played on hard courts, Roland Garros on clay, and Wimbledon on grass. Winning all four in one calendar year is a "Calendar Grand Slam", last done in men's singles by Rod Laver in 1969.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements with regard to the film ‘Boong’ :
- 1. The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children’s and Family Film category.
- 2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.
- 3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children’s and Family Film category.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (a) & explanation
All three statements are correct (a). Statement 1 is right: Boong won the BAFTA for Children's and Family Film in February 2026. Statement 2 is right: it was directed by Lakshmipriya Devi, her debut feature. Statement 3 is right: it is the first Indian film to win that category. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the film: made in Manipuri (Meiteilon), it follows a young boy in Manipur searching for his missing father, with the State's ethnic tensions in the background. It beat films like Zootopia 2 and Lilo & Stitch. Meitei is one of the 22 languages in the Eighth Schedule, added by the 71st Amendment (1992) along with Konkani and Nepali.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following countries :
- I. United Arab Emirates
- II. France
- III. Germany
- IV. Singapore
- V. Bangladesh
How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
Answer (b) & explanation
Three of the listed countries accept UPI merchant payments (b). NPCI International has taken UPI merchant payments to the UAE, France, starting with the Eiffel Tower, and Singapore, among others such as Bhutan, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Mauritius. Items III and V are wrong: Germany and Bangladesh were not on that list when the question was set. So options (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the Singapore link: UPI was joined to Singapore's PayNow in 2023 for instant cross-border transfers. UPI handles most of India's digital payments, over 20 billion transactions a month. The RuPay card is UPI's partner in the push abroad. Expansion abroad continues, so check the latest list before an exam.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs :
| Aircraft type | Description
| I. Dornier-228 | Maritime patrol aircraft
| II. IL-76 | Supersonic combat aircraft
| III. C-17 Globemaster III | Military transport aircraft
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only two pairs are correctly matched (b). Pair I is right: the HAL-built Dornier-228 flies maritime patrol for the Navy and Coast Guard. Pair III is right: the C-17 Globemaster III is the IAF's largest strategic airlifter, a military transport aircraft. Pair II is wrong: the IL-76 is a Russian heavy transport aircraft, also used as a tanker and AWACS platform, not a supersonic fighter. So options (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice other transport planes: the C-130J Super Hercules, and the C-295, the first military aircraft to be made in India by a private firm, Tata, at Vadodara. Fighters include the Rafale, Su-30MKI and Tejas. The P-8I is the Navy's long-range patrol plane.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of ‘Gandhi Peace Prize’?
- I. The President of India
- II. The Prime Minister of India
- III. The Chief Justice of India
- IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer (c) & explanation
The PM, CJI and Leader of Opposition are on the jury (c). The Gandhi Peace Prize (from 1995, Ministry of Culture) is chosen by a jury chaired by the Prime Minister (item II). It includes the Chief Justice of India (item III) and the Leader of the largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha (item IV), along with two eminent persons. Item I is wrong: the President is not on it. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice the award: ₹1 crore, a citation and a plaque, open to all, regardless of nationality, race or creed. Recent winners include Gita Press (2021), Sheikh Mujibur Rahman (2020) and Sultan Qaboos of Oman (2019). The first went to Julius Nyerere.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup:
- I. The event was held in Delhi, India.
- II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.
- III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54-36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Only statement I is correct (a). Statement I is right: the first Kho Kho World Cup was held in New Delhi in January 2025, and India beat Nepal in both finals. Statements II and III are wrong: the question swaps the two scores. The women won 78-40 and the men won 54-36. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the game's roots: kho kho is an Indian tag game from Maharashtra, played by teams of 12, with nine on the field. It was shown at the 1936 Berlin Olympics as a demonstration sport. Ultimate Kho Kho, a professional league since 2022, has boosted its popularity. Trick: read sports scores carefully, as swaps are common.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.
- II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only statement II is correct (b). Statement II is right: Abhimanyu Mishra of the USA became the youngest-ever grandmaster in 2021, at 12 years and 4 months, beating Sergey Karjakin's record. Statement I is wrong: India won gold at the 45th Chess Olympiad (Budapest, 2024), but the Olympiad is a team event with no final. Gukesh became the youngest World Champion by beating Ding Liren of China in December 2024, not Nepomniachtchi. So options (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice India's golden year: both the open and women's teams won Olympiad gold in 2024. Divya Deshmukh won the Women's World Cup in 2025. Viswanathan Anand was India's first grandmaster (1988).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces ?
| Army | Airforce | Navy
| 1. Brigadier | Air Commodore | Commander
| 2. Major General | Air Vice Marshal | Vice Admiral
| 3. Major | Squadron Leader | Lieutenant Commander
| 4. Lieutenant Colonel | Group Captain | Captain
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
Only row 3 is correctly matched (d). Row 3 is right: Major = Squadron Leader = Lieutenant Commander. Row 1 is wrong: Brigadier = Air Commodore = Commodore, not Commander. Row 2 is wrong: Major General = Air Vice Marshal = Rear Admiral; a Vice Admiral matches a Lieutenant General. Row 4 is wrong: Lieutenant Colonel = Wing Commander = Commander. Group Captain and Captain (Navy) go with Colonel.
Notice the top ranks: General = Air Chief Marshal = Admiral. The five-star ranks of Field Marshal, Marshal of the Air Force and Admiral of the Fleet are honorary; India's only holders were Manekshaw, Cariappa and Arjan Singh. The Chief of Defence Staff heads the joint military structure.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs ?
- 1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee
- 2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs
- 3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
Duties 1 and 3 are correct (d). Item 1 is right: the Chief of Defence Staff (post created in 2019) is the permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee. Item 3 is right: the CDS is the principal military adviser to the Defence Minister on all tri-service matters, and heads the Department of Military Affairs. Item 2 is wrong: the CDS does not command the three Service Chiefs. Each chief keeps operational command of their own service, so options (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Notice the CDS's main task: jointness, meaning the three services train, buy and fight together, including setting up theatre commands. General Bipin Rawat was India's first CDS. The CDS also advises the Nuclear Command Authority.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called :
Answer (c) & explanation
Such Army work is called Operation Sadbhavana (c). Operation Sadbhavana, meaning "goodwill", is the Army's civic-action programme in Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh and the North-East. It runs Army Goodwill Schools, health camps, water schemes and skill training to win hearts in remote areas. Option (a) is wrong: Sankalp is a Navy mission escorting Indian ships in the Gulf. Option (b) is wrong: Maitri was relief after the Nepal earthquake (2015). Option (d) is wrong: Madad is a Navy flood-relief operation, used in Kerala.
Notice other names UPSC likes: Operation Kaveri (Sudan evacuation, 2023), Operation Ajay (Israel, 2023), Operation Dost (Turkey earthquake, 2023) and Operation Sindoor (strikes on terror camps, 2025).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following statements about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ are correct ?
- 1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
- 2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
- 3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.
- 4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct (d). Statement 2 is right: the 2023 edition was held at Aundh, Pune. Statement 3 is right: it practised counter-terrorism operations under a UN peacekeeping mandate. Statement 4 is right: the Indian Air Force took part, alongside the Army. Statement 1 is wrong: Mitra Shakti is the India–Sri Lanka Army exercise. India and Bangladesh hold Sampriti, so options (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Notice other exercise pairs UPSC asks: Yudh Abhyas (USA), Garuda Shakti (Indonesia), Nomadic Elephant (Mongolia), Surya Kiran (Nepal), Dharma Guardian (Japan) and SLINEX (Sri Lanka, Navy). A trick: match the country, then the service.
Pairs to remember: Sampriti (Bangladesh), Mitra Shakti (Sri Lanka), Surya Kiran (Nepal), Ekuverin (Maldives).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters” ?
Answer (d) & explanation
S. Jaishankar wrote both books (d). External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar wrote The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World (2020) and Why Bharat Matters (2024). Both set out his view of India's foreign policy in a multipolar world, with India dealing with all big powers on its own terms. Option (a) is wrong: Bhupender Yadav is the Environment Minister. Option (b) is wrong: Nalin Mehta writes on politics, such as The New BJP. Option (c) is wrong: Shashi Tharoor wrote An Era of Darkness and Why I Am a Hindu.
Notice Jaishankar's background: a career diplomat, earlier Foreign Secretary, and ambassador to China and the USA. His ideas include "strategic autonomy" and "multi-alignment".
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements :
- 1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.
- 2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only statement 2 is correct (b). Statement 2 is right: under the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA, 2016), private doctors, such as obstetricians, volunteer their services at government facilities, under the "I Pledge for 9" call. Statement 1 is wrong: the scheme offers free, assured antenatal check-ups in the second and third trimesters on a fixed day, the 9th of every month. It does not include six months of post-delivery care.
Notice the aim: to cut maternal and infant deaths by catching high-risk pregnancies early. Related schemes include Janani Suraksha Yojana (cash for institutional delivery), PM Matru Vandana Yojana (₹5,000 for the first child) and LaQshya (labour room quality).
The antenatal part of statement 1 is accurate. The extra "six months post-delivery" clause is what makes it wrong.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.