Schemes, reports, indices and other current affairs: previous-year questions
62 real UPSC Prelims questions (2011–2026) with the official answer and a clear explanation. 32 of them came in the last five papers.
How often UPSC asks this
Questions per year, counted from the official papers.
Attempt the questions
Newest papers first. Tap an option; the answer and the reason appear instantly.
Consider the following aircraft :
- 1. Rafael
- 2. MiG-29
- 3. Tejas MK-1
How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft ?
Answer (d) & explanation
None of them is a fifth-generation fighter (d). Item 1 is wrong: the Rafale is a 4.5-generation fighter, bought from France. Item 2 is wrong: the MiG-29 is a fourth-generation fighter. Item 3 is wrong: the Tejas Mk-1 is a 4/4.5-generation light combat aircraft, built by HAL. A fifth-generation jet needs stealth, supercruise (supersonic flight without afterburners) and sensor fusion, like the US F-35 and F-22, Russia's Su-57 or China's J-20.
Notice India's own plan, the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA), a fifth-generation stealth fighter designed by DRDO's Aeronautical Development Agency. In 2025, the government approved a model that lets private firms take part in building it.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana :
- 1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
- 2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
- 3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
- 4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Two statements are correct (b). Statement 2 is right: Janani Suraksha Yojana (2005) aims to cut maternal and newborn deaths among poor pregnant women. Statement 3 is right: it does this by giving them cash to deliver in a hospital or health centre, with ASHA workers guiding them. Statement 1 is wrong: it is a safe-motherhood intervention under the National Health Mission of the Union Health Ministry, not a scheme of the State health departments, though States run it. Statement 4 is wrong: free care for sick infants up to one year comes under the separate Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK, 2011).
Notice the result: institutional deliveries rose to about 89% by NFHS-5, and India's maternal mortality ratio has fallen below 100 per lakh live births.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy :
- 1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women.
- 2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child-birth.
- 3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
- 4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Three statements are correct (c). Anaemia Mukt Bharat (2018) uses a 6×6×6 strategy: six groups, six interventions, six institutional systems. Statement 2 is right: it promotes delayed cord clamping at birth, which gives the baby more iron-rich blood. Statement 3 is right: it gives periodic deworming, as worms cause blood loss. Statement 4 is right: it tackles non-nutritional causes in endemic pockets, such as malaria, haemoglobinopathies like sickle cell, and fluorosis. Statement 1 is wrong: it gives prophylactic iron and folic acid, not calcium.
Notice why it matters: NFHS-5 found about 57% of women and 67% of children aged 6–59 months anaemic. Fortified rice in public food schemes and the Sickle Cell Mission (2023) support the campaign.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight.
- 2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 swaps the two types. A ballistic missile is rocket-powered only in its initial boost phase, then follows a high free-fall arc to its target. A cruise missile is jet-propelled throughout its flight, flying low like an aircraft. Statement 2 is also swapped: Agni-V is a solid-fuelled ballistic missile with a range above 5,000 km, while BrahMos, made with Russia, is a supersonic cruise missile flying at about Mach 2.8.
Notice that in 2024, under Mission Divyastra, India tested Agni-V with MIRV technology, letting one missile carry several warheads at different targets. BrahMos has been exported to the Philippines, India's first big missile export.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
Statement-II : Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer (b) & explanation
Both statements are correct but II does not explain I (b). Statement I is right: the National Health Policy 2017 itself notes that public health care is mostly curative, treating illness after it strikes, with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care. Statement II is right: public health and hospitals are on the State List, so States are mainly responsible for running health services. But II does not explain I: the curative focus comes from priorities and funding, not from decentralisation.
Notice the shift under Ayushman Bharat (2018): its Ayushman Arogya Mandirs, the former Health and Wellness Centres, push primary and preventive care, while PM-JAY pays for hospital treatment. Public health spending is still below the target of 2.5% of GDP.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements :
- 1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
- 2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
- 3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Two statements are correct (b). Statement 1 is wrong: Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Acts and Rules of the States and Union Territories, not a central Act. Statement 2 is right: they are a voluntary force that works as an auxiliary to the police in keeping internal security, and helps in emergencies like floods, fires and disasters. Statement 3 is right: Border Wing Home Guards battalions have been raised in border States such as Punjab, Rajasthan, Gujarat and others to help the BSF stop infiltration.
Notice that the Home Guards were first raised in Bombay in 1946, during communal riots. Their policy is guided by the Directorate General of Fire Services, Civil Defence and Home Guards under the Union Home Ministry.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to India, consider the following pairs :
| Action | The Act under which it is covered
| 1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms | The Official Secrets Act, 1923
| 2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties | The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
| 3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others | The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Answer (b) & explanation
Two pairs are correctly matched (b). Pair 1 is right: the Official Secrets Act, 1923 punishes unauthorised use of uniforms (section 6), which spies could use to enter restricted places. Pair 2 is wrong: interfering with police or military officers near a prohibited place is also an offence under the Official Secrets Act (section 7), not the Indian Evidence Act, which deals only with proof in court. Pair 3 is right: the Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 made celebratory gunfire that endangers others an offence, punishable with jail up to two years, a fine, or both.
Notice the 2019 amendment also cut the number of guns a person may hold from three to two and raised punishments for illegal arms manufacture.
Pairs 1 and 2 both belong to the Official Secrets Act. The Evidence Act defines no crimes.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards :
- 1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award : For the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years
- 2. Arjuna Award : For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson
- 3. Dronacharya Award : To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams
- 4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar : To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Answer (b) & explanation
Two pairs are correctly matched (b). Pair 1 is right: the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna honours the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over the last four years. Pair 3 is right: the Dronacharya Award honours eminent coaches who have trained winning sportspersons or teams. Pair 2 is wrong: the Arjuna Award is for consistent good performance over four years; lifetime achievement is honoured by the Dhyan Chand Award, now the Arjuna Award (Lifetime). Pair 4 is wrong: the Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar goes to organisations and corporates that promote sport, not retired players.
Notice that the Khel Ratna was renamed from Rajiv Gandhi to Major Dhyan Chand in 2021. The MAKA Trophy goes to the best university in sport.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022:
- 1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India.
- 2. The official mascot was named ‘Thambi’.
- 3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
- 4. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Two statements are correct (b). Statement 1 is right: the 44th Chess Olympiad, held at Mamallapuram near Chennai in 2022, was the first held in India. It moved there after Russia lost hosting rights. Statement 2 is right: its official mascot was a knight named "Thambi", meaning younger brother in Tamil. Statements 3 and 4 swap the trophies: the open section's trophy is the Hamilton-Russell Cup, and the women's section's is the Vera Menchik Cup.
Notice the torch relay, started for the first time at this Olympiad, beginning in India. At the 45th Olympiad in Budapest (2024), India won gold in both the open and women's sections, its best ever. D. Gukesh became world champion in 2024.
When two statements carry paired names, check whether they have simply been swapped.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
- 2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong: the India Sanitation Coalition was launched in 2015 at FICCI as a platform where companies, NGOs, donors and government work together on sanitation. It is not funded by the Government of India and the WHO. Statement 2 is wrong: the National Institute of Urban Affairs (1976) is an autonomous research and training institute that supports the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs; it is not the Ministry's apex body. It runs studies and projects such as the Smart Cities and climate work.
Notice the trap: UPSC slips in words like "funded by" or "apex body" to make a mostly true line wrong. The matching government mission is the Swachh Bharat Mission, launched on 2 October 2014.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing” ?
Answer (a) & explanation
Greenwashing means falsely claiming to be eco-friendly (a). Greenwashing is making misleading green claims about a product, a fund or a company, so it looks more environmentally sound than it is. Examples include vague labels like "natural", hiding a small green line behind a dirty core business, or selling an "ESG" fund full of polluters. Option (b) describes the lack of green accounting in national accounts. Option (c) describes careless development, not marketing. Option (d) describes the opposite of greenwashing: building environmental costs into projects.
Notice that regulators now act against it. SEBI set rules for ESG funds, the EU adopted rules on green claims, and India's CCPA issued guidelines on greenwashing in 2024 under the Consumer Protection Act.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media ?
Answer (c) & explanation
FOBS puts a missile in orbit and brings it down on a target (c). The Fractional Orbital Bombardment System is a Soviet idea from the 1960s. It sends a warhead into a partial low orbit and brings it down over the target from any direction, even over the South Pole. This avoids early-warning radars, which mostly look north, and leaves no fixed path. Option (a) describes planetary defence against asteroids. Option (b) describes a planetary landing. Option (d) describes a comet mission, such as Rosetta.
Notice that reports of China's 2021 hypersonic glide test via orbit brought FOBS back into the news. The Outer Space Treaty (1967) bans placing nuclear weapons in orbit. India tested an anti-satellite missile in Mission Shakti (2019).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000 :
- 1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.
- 2. The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far.
- 3. Roger Federer received this award a maximum number of times compared to others.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct (c). Statement 1 is right: Tiger Woods won the first Laureus World Sportsman of the Year award in 2000. Statement 3 was right when asked: Roger Federer had won it the most times, five; Novak Djokovic has since equalled him with his fifth in 2024. Statement 2 is wrong: winners have come from tennis, athletics, golf, football and swimming, as well as Formula One (Michael Schumacher, Lewis Hamilton), so it is not mostly F1.
Notice India's Laureus moment: Sachin Tendulkar won the Laureus Sporting Moment award (2000–2020) in 2020, for being carried on teammates' shoulders after the 2011 World Cup win. The awards were founded by Daimler and Richemont.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics :
- 1. The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’.
- 2. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only statement 2 is correct (b). Statement 1 is wrong: the Tokyo 2020 Games, the 32nd Summer Olympics, held in 2021 because of COVID, had the motto "United by Emotion", not "A New World". The IOC also added "Together" to the Olympic motto, making it "Faster, Higher, Stronger – Together". Statement 2 is right: Tokyo added sport climbing, surfing, skateboarding and karate, and brought back baseball/softball.
Notice India's best Olympics till then: seven medals at Tokyo, including Neeraj Chopra's gold in javelin, India's first in athletics. At Paris 2024, India won six medals, and breaking made its debut. The 2028 Games are in Los Angeles.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship :
- 1. The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won.
- 2. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong: for the first ICC World Test Championship (2019–21), many series were cancelled because of COVID, so finalists were chosen by the percentage of points earned out of points contested, not by matches won. Statement 2 is wrong: New Zealand was placed ahead of England on that percentage, not because it won more matches. New Zealand then beat India in the final at Southampton in June 2021.
Notice the later winners: Australia beat India at The Oval in 2023, and South Africa beat Australia at Lord's in 2025. India has reached the final twice, in 2021 and 2023. The WTC was set up to give Test cricket a context and a champion.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct ?
- 1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
- 2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
- 3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
- 4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct (d). Under MPLADS, started in 1993, each MP gets ₹5 crore a year for local works. Statement 1 is right because the money must be used for durable community assets, such as roads, school buildings, health centres and drinking water. Statement 2 is right because at least 15% must go to areas with SC people and 7.5% to areas with ST people. Statement 4 is right because the district authority must inspect at least 10% of works each year. Statement 3 is wrong because MPLADS funds are non-lapsable: unspent money carries forward to the next year.
The scheme was suspended for two years in 2020–22 to fund COVID relief. Notice the 2023 guidelines, which moved funds to an online e-SAKSHI portal for tracking.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the
Answer (c) & explanation
The Atal Innovation Mission is under NITI Aayog (c). Set up in 2016, the AIM is housed in NITI Aayog. It runs Atal Tinkering Labs in schools, where students learn by building things with tools such as 3D printers and robotics kits. It also funds Atal Incubation Centres for start-ups, Atal Community Innovation Centres in under-served areas, and challenge grants. It does not belong to the Department of Science and Technology (a), the Labour Ministry (b) or the Skill Development Ministry (d), though it works with them.
The Cabinet extended AIM to 2028 as AIM 2.0 (2024). Notice the plan in Budget 2025 to set up 50,000 Atal Tinkering Labs in government schools within five years.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
- 1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
- 2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother minimum six crèche visits daily.
- 3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer (c) & explanation
Only statement 3 is correct (c). The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 raised paid maternity leave from 12 to 26 weeks. Statement 1 is wrong because up to 8 weeks of this can be taken before delivery, not three months. Statement 2 is wrong because establishments with 50 or more employees must provide a crèche, and the mother may visit it four times a day, not six. Statement 3 is right because a woman who already has two children gets only 12 weeks for later births. The Act also gave 12 weeks to adoptive and commissioning mothers, and allowed work from home where possible.
Notice the change since then: the Act is now part of the Code on Social Security, 2020, in force from November 2025. Mission Shakti's PMMVY gives cash support for the first child.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
- 2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
- 3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only statement 2 is correct (b). Statement 1 is wrong because, under Section 23 of the RTE Act, 2009, minimum teacher qualifications are set by the academic authority named by the Centre. That authority is the NCTE, not a State council. Statement 2 is right because passing the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET), held under NCTE guidelines, is compulsory for teaching Classes 1–8. Statement 3 is wrong because over 90% of teacher-education institutions are privately run, not government ones. The Justice J. S. Verma Commission (2012) pointed this out.
The CTET is held by the CBSE. In 2025, the Supreme Court said TET is compulsory for serving teachers too. Notice the reform under NEP 2020: the four-year Integrated Teacher Education Programme (ITEP).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
- 2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (a) & explanation
Only statement 1 is correct (a). The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 combined several older food laws, including the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954, the Fruit Products Order and the Milk and Milk Products Order, into one law (1). Statement 2 is wrong because FSSAI, set up in 2008, is a statutory body under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. It is headed by a Chairperson, with a CEO, and it is not under the Director General of Health Services.
FSSAI sets food standards, licenses food businesses, and runs campaigns such as Eat Right India and the trans-fat limit of 2% (2022). Notice the State Food Safety Index and FSSAI's recent moves on front-of-pack labels.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.