Chapter 4 · Topic 4.3 · Prelims + Mains3 of 4
Banking: Chapter test
Key points
- Basel I (1988) credit risk; Basel II (2004) three pillars; Basel III (2010) capital, leverage and liquidity.
- India: CRAR 9%, CET1 5.5%, buffer 2.5%; actual CRAR 17.7% (March 2026).
- PMJDY (28 August 2014): 59.37 crore accounts (23 September 2026).
- e₹ is an RBI liability; pilots November and December 2022.
8 PYQs 2017–2026
Prelims box: facts and traps
- PCA framework (2 November 2021): tracks capital, asset quality (net NPA) and leverage.
- LCR: high-quality liquid assets covering 30 days of stressed outflows; 100% in India since January 2019.
- Trap (Prelims 2024): the digital rupee is not insured against inflation.
- Trap (Prelims 2014): all the statements were correct.
On this page (3 sections)
Basel norms and capital adequacy
Capital is a bank’s own cushion, like a shopkeeper’s savings for a bad month.
| Accord | Focus |
|---|---|
| Basel I (1988) | Credit risk; minimum capital 8% of risk-weighted assets |
| Basel II (2004) | Three pillars: minimum capital, supervisory review, market discipline |
| Basel III (2010) | After the 2008 crisis: higher quality capital, capital conservation buffer, leverage ratio, liquidity coverage ratio and net stable funding ratio |
| India’s norms | Minimum CRAR 9% (stricter than Basel’s 8%); CET1 5.5%; capital conservation buffer 2.5% |
| Actual (March 2026) | CRAR 17.7%, CET1 15.3% for scheduled commercial banks (RBI FSR, provisional) |
Prelims 2015 asked what Basel III seeks to do. Answer: improve banking sector’s ability to deal with financial and economic stress and improve risk management.
'Basel III Accord' or simply 'Basel III', often seen in the news, seeks to
- develop national strategies for the conservation and sustainable use of biological diversity
- improve banking sector's ability to deal with financial and economic stress and improve risk management
- reduce the greenhouse gas emissions but places a heavier burden on developed countries
- transfer technology from developed countries to poor countries to enable them to replace the use of chlorofluorocarbons in refrigeration with harmless chemicals
Show answer
Answer: (b) · UPSC official key
The capital adequacy ratio is the share of own funds a bank must keep to absorb losses if borrowers default. It is set by the regulator, not by each bank, so the 2018 answer was 1 only.
Consider the following statements : 1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues. 2. CAR is decided by each individual bank. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) · UPSC official key
What UPSC asks: Prelims: the three accords. Mains: India’s 9% CRAR. Next likely angle: the aim of Basel III.
Financial inclusion and PM Jan Dhan Yojana
Financial inclusion means every family can save, borrow, insure and get benefits through a bank.

| Step | Detail |
|---|---|
| Lead Bank Scheme (1969) | One bank leads development of credit in each district |
| Business correspondents (2006) | Agents (Bank Saathi) providing deposits, withdrawals and benefit payouts in villages without branches |
| PM Jan Dhan Yojana (28 August 2014) | Basic accounts with RuPay card, accident cover and overdraft |
| PMJDY progress | 59.37 crore accounts; deposits ₹3,18,033.60 crore; 41.56 crore RuPay cards (as on 23 September 2026, PMJDY portal) |
| RBI FI-Index (2021) | 0 to 100 scale; three sub-indices: Access, Usage, Quality |
Prelims 2014: business correspondents let rural beneficiaries draw subsidies and social security benefits and make deposits and withdrawals in their villages. Answer: Both 1 and 2.
What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get from the services of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas? 1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages. 2. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) · UPSC official key
Prelims 2026 asked for the three sub-indices of the RBI’s Financial Inclusion Index. Answer: Access, Usage, and Quality.
Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI- Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) ?
- Credit access, Insurance depth, and Pension coverage
- Banking access, GDP contribution, and Financial literacy
- Access, Usage, and Quality
- Access, Affordability, and Transparency
Show answer
Answer: (c) · UPSC provisional key (final key awaited)
What UPSC asks: Prelims: PMJDY and the FI-Index. Mains: business correspondents.
Digital banking and the digital rupee
The digital rupee is cash in digital form: a note issued by the RBI, held in a phone wallet.
| System | Detail |
|---|---|
| NPCI (2008) | Umbrella body for retail payments: UPI, RuPay, IMPS, AePS, NACH, FASTag (NETC) |
| UPI (2016) | Real-time, account-to-account mobile payments; settled through banks |
| Digital rupee (e₹) | RBI’s central bank digital currency; wholesale pilot November 2022, retail pilot December 2022; a liability of the RBI, like cash |
| Digital banking units | Announced in Budget 2022-23 for 75 districts |
| Risks | Cyber fraud, data protection, outages; RBI’s payment data storage rules (2018) |
Prelims 2024: the digital rupee is sovereign currency issued by the RBI in line with monetary policy, sits as a liability on its balance sheet, and converts freely against bank money and cash. It is not inflation-proof. Answer: 1, 2 and 4.
Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee : 1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy. 2. It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet. 3. It is insured against inflation by its very design. 4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
- 1 and 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 4 only
- 1, 2 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (d) · UPSC official key
What UPSC asks: Prelims: UPI and e₹. Mains: cyber risk.
Mains box: analysis and answer points
- Capital adequacy as a buffer against defaults.
- Inclusion: Lead Bank Scheme, BCs, PMJDY, FI-Index.
- Digital risks: fraud, data and outages.
Practice
Practice MCQs (8)
The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, which frames the Basel capital accords, has its secretariat at the
Answer (a) & explanation
The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) was set up in 1974 by the central bank governors of the G10 countries after the failure of Germany's Herstatt Bank disturbed currency markets. Its secretariat is at the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) in Basel, Switzerland, which gives the accords their name: Basel I (1988), Basel II (2004) and Basel III (from 2010, after the global financial crisis). The Committee has no legal powers; its standards are minimums that national regulators, like the RBI, put into their own rules. India has been a member since 2009.
For computing the capital adequacy of a bank in India, which one of the following exposures generally carries the lowest risk weight?
Answer (d) & explanation
Risk weights reflect how likely an exposure is to cause a loss. Claims on the Central Government in rupees, such as G-secs and Treasury Bills, carry a 0% risk weight, because the sovereign can always service debt in its own currency. That is why banks can hold large amounts of government securities, including those kept for the SLR, without needing extra capital for credit risk. Unrated corporate loans generally attract a 100% or higher risk weight, and unsecured consumer credit such as personal loans and credit card receivables carries some of the highest weights; in November 2023 the RBI raised them further, for example to 125% for many personal loans and to 150% for credit card receivables of banks. Note that G- secs still carry market risk, which needs separate capital.
With reference to the liquidity standards of Basel III, consider the following statements:
1. The Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) requires a bank to hold enough high-quality liquid assets to survive a significant stress scenario lasting 30 days.
2. The Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR) is a capital ratio that forms part of a bank's Capital to Risk-weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Only statement 1 is correct. The 2008 crisis showed that banks with adequate capital could still fail because they ran out of cash. Basel III therefore added two liquidity standards. The LCR requires a stock of unencumbered high-quality liquid assets, such as government securities, at least equal to the bank's net cash outflows over the next 30 days under stress; in India it has been 100% since January 2019. Statement 2 is wrong: the NSFR is also a liquidity standard, not a capital ratio. It requires available stable funding to be at least equal to required stable funding over a one-year horizon, so that long-term assets are not financed by short-term money; the RBI applied it from October 2021. Neither ratio is part of the CRAR.
With reference to the retail Digital Rupee (e₹-R) issued by the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements:
1. It is legal tender and a direct liability of the RBI.
2. Like a savings account deposit, balances held in the e₹-R wallet earn interest.
3. The RBI has introduced offline and programmability features in the e₹-R pilot.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Finance Act 2022 amended section 22 of the RBI Act so that 'bank notes' include a digital form. The e₹-R, piloted from 1 December 2022, is therefore legal tender and, like cash, a liability of the RBI and not of the bank that distributes the wallet. Statement 2 is wrong: the RBI designed the digital rupee to be non-interest-bearing, mirroring physical cash. If it paid interest, people might shift money out of bank deposits on a large scale, shrinking banks' ability to lend; this risk is called disintermediation. In 2024 the RBI extended the pilot with programmability, which lets money be restricted to specific uses (for example, a government benefit that can be spent only on certain items), and an offline mode for areas with weak connectivity. Unlike UPI, which moves bank deposits between accounts, e₹ is the money itself.
With reference to the RBI's revised Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) framework for scheduled commercial banks, effective from 1 January 2022, consider the following statements:
1. Capital, asset quality and leverage are the key areas monitored under it.
2. Return on assets is one of the indicators whose breach can trigger PCA.
3. It does not apply to Small Finance Banks, Payments Banks and Regional Rural Banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The PCA framework lets the RBI step in early and require a weak bank to take corrective steps, such as limits on dividends, branch expansion or risky lending, before it fails. The revised framework announced on 2 November 2021 tracks three areas: capital (CRAR or CET1 ratio), asset quality (net NPA ratio) and leverage (Tier 1 leverage ratio). Statement 2 is wrong: profitability measured by return on assets was a trigger under the 2017 framework but was dropped in the 2021 revision. The circular is addressed to all scheduled commercial banks excluding SFBs, payments banks and RRBs, so statement 3 is correct. It applies to foreign banks operating through branches or subsidiaries.
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: If the RBI raises the risk weight on unsecured consumer loans, a bank holding such loans will see its Capital to Risk-weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) fall even if its capital stays the same. Statement-II: The CRAR is the ratio of a bank's capital to its total assets, without any adjustment for the riskiness of those assets.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. The CRAR divides a bank's regulatory capital by its risk-weighted assets: each loan or investment is multiplied by a risk weight (0% for central government securities, higher for riskier loans) before being added up. If the RBI raises the risk weight on a class of loans, as it did for certain unsecured consumer loans in November 2023, the risk-weighted assets rise. The same capital is then spread over a larger base, so the CRAR falls. This is exactly how risk weights work as a macroprudential tool to cool a fast-growing loan segment. Statement-II is wrong because a ratio of capital to total, unweighted assets is the leverage ratio, not the CRAR.
With reference to the Basel III capital norms as applied by the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements:
1. The minimum Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) ratio prescribed by the RBI is 5.5% of risk- weighted assets, higher than the Basel Committee's minimum of 4.5%.
2. The minimum total capital requirement in India, excluding the capital conservation buffer, is 9% of risk-weighted assets.
3. The capital conservation buffer of 2.5% may be met with Tier 2 capital.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The RBI applies Basel III more strictly than the Basel Committee. It sets minimum CET1 at 5.5% against Basel's 4.5%, Tier 1 at 7%, and total capital at 9% against Basel's 8% of risk-weighted assets. On top of these minimums, banks must hold a capital conservation buffer (CCB) of 2.5%, so that the CET1 requirement including the buffer becomes 8% and total capital becomes 11.5%. Statement 3 is wrong: the CCB must be made up of CET1, the highest-quality capital. The buffer is meant to absorb losses in bad times, and a bank that eats into it faces limits on paying dividends.
Consider the following statements about the components of a bank's regulatory capital under Basel III:
1. Tier 1 capital consists of Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) and Additional Tier 1 (AT1) capital.
2. AT1 bonds are perpetual instruments that can be written down or converted into equity when the bank's CET1 ratio falls below a pre-specified trigger.
3. Tier 2 capital is 'going-concern' capital that absorbs losses before AT1 capital does.
4. Paid-up equity share capital and statutory reserves form part of CET1 capital.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Tier 1 capital, the bank's core capital, is CET1 plus AT1. CET1 is the purest layer: paid-up equity, share premium, statutory and other disclosed reserves, and retained earnings, so statement 4 is correct. AT1 bonds have no maturity date and must absorb losses, through write-down or conversion, if CET1 falls below the trigger or the bank reaches the point of non-viability. Yes Bank's AT1 bonds were written off in 2020 under its reconstruction scheme. Statement 3 is wrong: Tier 2, made up of instruments such as subordinated debt and some provisions, is 'gone-concern' capital. It absorbs losses mainly when the bank fails, after equity and AT1 have been used up.
0 / 0 correct
Prelims PYQs on this topic (8)
Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) ?
Answer (c) & explanation
The sub-indices are Access, Usage and Quality (c). The RBI launched the FI-Index in August 2021. It covers banking, investments, insurance, postal services and pension, and gives one value between 0 and 100. Its three parameters are Access (35%), Usage (45%) and Quality (20%). Options (a), (b) and (d) list areas or ideas that are not its sub-indices; GDP contribution and affordability are not parameters.
Notice the logic: usage has the most weight, because an account that is never used does not mean real inclusion. Quality includes financial literacy and consumer protection. The index is published every July, and it has risen steadily, helped by Jan Dhan (2014) and UPI.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India :
- 1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits.
- 2. All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI.
- 3. NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself.
- 4. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (a) & explanation
Statements 1 and 4 are correct (a). The RBI lists how an NBFC differs from a bank. Statement 1 is right: NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits. Statement 4 is right: depositors of NBFCs get no DICGC insurance cover. Statement 3 is wrong: NBFCs are not part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves. Statement 2 is wrong: not every NBFC registers with the RBI; insurers report to IRDAI, merchant bankers and brokers to SEBI, and chit funds to State governments. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the current rules: since 2021, the RBI regulates NBFCs through a Scale-Based Regulation in four layers: Base, Middle, Upper and Top. DICGC covers bank deposits up to ₹5 lakh.
"All the NBFCs" in statement 2. Many finance companies have another regulator.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.
- 2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).
- 3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (c) & explanation
All three statements are correct (c). Statement 1 is right: the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (repo and reverse repo) is open to banks and to standalone primary dealers, which are themselves NBFCs registered with the RBI. Statement 2 is right: foreign portfolio investors may hold G-Secs within limits, and some bonds are fully open to them under the Fully Accessible Route (FAR). Statement 3 is right: NSE and BSE run separate debt segments for trading bonds.
Notice the big change: from 2024, Indian government bonds entered global indices such as JP Morgan's, bringing in large foreign money. The FAR, introduced in 2020, made this possible. Primary dealers help the RBI sell government bonds.
statement 1 sounds wrong because the LAF is "for banks". Primary dealers are NBFCs, and they use it.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements :
- 1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.
- 2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong: under the RBI's 2013 scheme, a foreign bank's wholly owned subsidiary needs a minimum paid-up capital of ₹500 crore. Statement 2 is wrong as worded: on the board, at least 50% must be Indian nationals, NRIs or PIOs, and at least one-third must be Indian nationals resident in India. Statement 2 narrows the rule to Indian nationals alone, so UPSC treated it as wrong.
Notice why the RBI prefers subsidiaries to branches: a subsidiary is a separate Indian company with its own capital, so it is easier to control in a crisis. Subsidiaries also get near national treatment. SBM Bank and DBS Bank India were among the first to take this route.
statement 2 is close to the rule but not the rule. In regulatory questions, a changed group of people makes a statement wrong.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of 'sterilization'?
Answer (a) & explanation
Open Market Operations are used for sterilisation (a). When the RBI buys dollars to stop the rupee rising too fast, it pays in rupees, which adds money to the system and can push up inflation. To soak up that extra money, it sells government securities through open market operations. Cancelling the effect of forex operations on money supply this way is called sterilisation. Option (b) is wrong: overseeing payment systems is a separate RBI role. Option (c) is wrong: debt and cash management for governments is its banker role. Option (d) is wrong: regulating NBFCs is supervision.
Notice other sterilisation tools: the Market Stabilisation Scheme (2004), the Standing Deposit Facility (2022) and forex swaps, which avoid selling bonds.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to 'Urban Cooperative Banks' in India, consider the following statements :
- 1. They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments.
- 2. They can issue equity shares and preference shares.
- 3. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1966.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct (b). Statement 1 is wrong: no local boards regulate Urban Cooperative Banks. They have dual control: the State Registrar of Cooperative Societies handles registration and management, and the RBI regulates their banking business. Statement 2 is right: the 2020 amendment to the Banking Regulation Act allowed UCBs to raise capital through equity shares, preference shares and bonds, with RBI approval. Statement 3 is right: cooperative banks came under the Banking Regulation Act through an amendment in 1966.
Notice the PMC Bank crisis of 2019, which pushed the 2020 amendment giving the RBI more power over cooperative banks. Multi-State cooperative banks are registered under the Central Registrar instead.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Write an answer
In 150 words, explain the significance of Banking with one recent example.
Flashcards (5)
India's minimum CRAR?
9%.
Basel III year?
2010.
PMJDY launched?
28 August 2014.
FI-Index sub-indices?
Access, Usage, Quality.
Digital rupee is whose liability?
The RBI's.
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