Chapter 7 · Topic 7.1 · Prelims + Mains1 of 3
Taxation: Tax basics, income and corporate tax
Key points
- Basics.
- Income tax.
- Corporate tax.
- GST design.
- GST performance.
- Customs and excise.
2 PYQs 2009–2018
Prelims box: facts and traps
| Concept | Meaning |
|---|---|
| Direct tax | Impact and incidence on the same person: income tax, corporation tax |
| Indirect tax | Burden can be shifted to the buyer: GST, customs, excise |
| Progressive / regressive | Rate rises with income / falls as a share of income (indirect taxes tend to be regressive) |
| Tax-to-GDP ratio | Tax revenue as a share of GDP; a measure of revenue capacity |
| Net tax revenue (Centre) | ₹26,23,264 crore in 2025-26 (CGA provisional); ₹28.7 lakh crore in 2026-27 (BE). |
- Budget 2018-19 brought back LTCG tax on listed equity; DDT was later abolished in 2020, with dividends taxed in shareholders' hands.
- The Income-tax Act, 2025 received Presidential assent on 21 August 2025 and came into force on 1 April 2026, repealing the Income-tax Act, 1961 (with transitional provisions for earlier years).
- The Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024, effective from 23 July 2024, raised the long-term rate on listed equity to 12.5% with an annual exemption of ₹1.25 lakh, and the short-term rate on STT-paid listed equity to 20%.
- Trap (UPSC Prelims 2018, India's decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities): “It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act” is incorrect. “Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the "Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements"” is incorrect.
- Trap (UPSC Prelims 2017): “Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade” is incorrect. “Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade” is incorrect.
On this page (3 sections)
Tax basics: direct and indirect
| Concept | Meaning |
|---|---|
| Direct tax | Impact and incidence on the same person: income tax, corporation tax |
| Indirect tax | Burden can be shifted to the buyer: GST, customs, excise |
| Progressive / regressive | Rate rises with income / falls as a share of income (indirect taxes tend to be regressive) |
| Tax-to-GDP ratio | Tax revenue as a share of GDP; a measure of revenue capacity |
| Net tax revenue (Centre) | ₹26,23,264 crore in 2025-26 (CGA provisional); ₹28.7 lakh crore in 2026-27 (BE) |
Prelims 2015: a falling tax-to-GDP ratio points to slowing growth, but says nothing directly about income distribution. Answer: 1 only.
A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following? 1. Slowing economic growth rate 2. Less equitable distribution of national income Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) · UPSC official key
Prelims 2017 claimed that tax revenue and the fiscal deficit had both risen steadily as a share of GDP over the previous decade. Neither had risen steadily, so the answer was Neither 1 nor 2.
Consider the following statements : 1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. 2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (d) · UPSC official key
Personal income tax
| Point | Detail |
|---|---|
| Law | Income-tax Act, 2025 in force from 1 April 2026, replacing the 1961 Act |
| Tax year | Replaces ‘previous year’ and ‘assessment year’; income from 1 April 2026 is Tax Year 2026-27 |
| New regime (default) slabs | Nil up to ₹4 lakh; 5% to ₹8 lakh; 10% to ₹12 lakh; 15% to ₹16 lakh; 20% to ₹20 lakh; 25% to ₹24 lakh; 30% above |
| Rebate | No tax up to ₹12 lakh for eligible residents (₹12.75 lakh for salaried with ₹75,000 standard deduction) |
| Agricultural income | Exempt from central income tax (taxing it is a State subject) |
Prelims 2025: rural agricultural land is not a capital asset under the Income-tax Act, 1961, but income from allied activities such as poultry and wool rearing is not automatically exempt. Answer: Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct.
Consider the following statements : Statement I : In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax. Statement II : In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
- Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
- Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
- Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (d) · UPSC official key
Mains 2018 asked candidates to comment on the changes to the Long-term Capital Gains Tax (LCGT) and Dividend Distribution Tax (DDT) in Budget 2018-19. Budget 2018-19 brought back LTCG tax on listed equity; DDT was later abolished in 2020, with dividends taxed in shareholders’ hands.
Comment on the important changes introduced in respect of the Long-term Capital Gains Tax (LCGT) and Dividend Distribution Tax (DDT) in the Union Budget for 2018-2019.
Corporate tax and digital taxation
| Point | Detail |
|---|---|
| 2019 cut | Option of 22% base rate for domestic companies (about 25.17% effective) without exemptions |
| New manufacturing | 15% base rate (about 17.17% effective) for units starting production by 31 March 2024 |
| MAT | Minimum alternate tax on book profits of companies paying little tax |
| Equalisation levy | 6% on online advertising by non-residents (2016), through the Finance Act rather than the Income Tax Act; withdrawn from April 2025 |
| Global minimum tax | OECD/G20 Pillar Two: 15% minimum on large multinationals |
Prelims 2018 asked about the 6% equalisation levy. It was not part of the Income Tax Act, and non-residents could not claim credit for it under DTAAs. Answer: Neither 1 nor 2.
With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act. 2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (d) · UPSC official key
Mains box: analysis and answer points
- Likely next angle: Tax-GDP
- Asked: Mains 2018 (GS Paper III, 10 marks): Comment on the important changes introduced in respect of the Long-term Capital Gains Tax (LCGT) and Dividend Distribution Tax (DDT) in the Union Budget for 2018-2019.
Practice
Practice MCQs (8)
With reference to the taxation of agricultural income in India, consider the following statements:
1. Agricultural income is exempt from the income tax levied by the Union Government.
2. Taxes on agricultural income are a subject in the State List of the Seventh Schedule.
3. Income from agricultural land situated outside India is also treated as exempt agricultural income under Indian income tax law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Union List entry 82 covers 'taxes on income other than agricultural income', and State List entry 46 covers 'taxes on agricultural income'; hence the Union income tax law exempts agricultural income and only States may tax it (a few, such as Kerala and Assam, tax plantation income). Statement 3 is wrong: the definition of agricultural income requires rent, revenue or income from land situated in India; income from farmland abroad is taxable like any other foreign income of a resident.
The Income-tax Act, 2025, which came into force on 1 April 2026, replaced the twin concepts of 'previous year' and 'assessment year' used in the Income-tax Act, 1961 with a single concept called
Answer (b) & explanation
The Income-tax Act, 2025 received Presidential assent on 21 August 2025 and came into force on 1 April 2026, repealing the Income-tax Act, 1961 (with transitional provisions for earlier years). It introduces the single term tax year, the twelve-month financial year beginning on 1 April, so that income of 'Tax Year 2026-27' is the income earned from April 2026 to March 2027. Under the old law, income of the 'previous year' was assessed in the following 'assessment year', which confused many taxpayers. The new Act aims at simpler language without changing basic tax policy.
Consider the following statements about the taxation of capital gains in India as per the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024, whose rates were retained in the Budget for 2026-27:
1. Long-term capital gains on listed equity shares are taxed at 12.5% on the gains exceeding ₹1.25 lakh in a year.
2. Short-term capital gains on listed equity shares on which securities transaction tax has been paid are taxed at 20%.
3. Listed equity shares become long-term capital assets when they are held for more than twelve months.
4. Agricultural land situated in a rural area is a capital asset, and the gain on its sale is taxed as a capital gain.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Three statements (1, 2 and 3) are correct. The Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024, effective from 23 July 2024, raised the long-term rate on listed equity to 12.5% with an annual exemption of ₹1.25 lakh, and the short-term rate on STT-paid listed equity to 20%; the holding period for listed securities to be long-term is more than 12 months. Budget 2026-27 kept these rates. Statement 4 is wrong: rural agricultural land is excluded from the definition of 'capital asset', so its sale does not give rise to capital gains tax.
The so-called 'angel tax', abolished for all classes of investors by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024, referred to the taxation of
Answer (c) & explanation
'Angel tax' was the popular name for section 56(2)(viib) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, introduced in 2012 to curb money laundering through bogus share premiums. When an unlisted, closely held company issued shares at a price above fair market value, the excess was taxed as the company's income from other sources. Start-ups argued that valuations of young firms are uncertain and the provision harmed genuine investment; recognised start-ups got exemptions, and the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 removed the provision altogether from assessment year 2025-26.
Consider the following statements:
1. Securities Transaction Tax (STT) is levied on the value of transactions in specified securities, such as equity shares and derivatives, entered into on a recognised stock exchange.
2. STT is treated as a direct tax and is administered by the Central Board of Direct Taxes.
3. Commodities Transaction Tax (CTT) is levied mainly on futures contracts in agricultural commodities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. STT, introduced by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2004, is charged on purchases and sales of equity shares, equity-oriented fund units and derivatives on recognised stock exchanges; it is collected by the exchange and is part of direct tax collections under the CBDT. Budget 2026-27 raised STT rates on futures and options to curb excessive speculation. Statement 3 is wrong: CTT, introduced in 2013, applies to non- agricultural commodity derivatives; specified agricultural commodities are kept out of it.
In the context of Indian income tax law, the 'Minimum Alternate Tax' (MAT) is meant for which one of the following?
Answer (c) & explanation
MAT applies to companies: if the tax computed under the normal provisions (after all exemptions, deductions and incentives) is lower than a specified percentage of the book profit shown in the audited profit and loss account, the company pays tax on book profit instead. It was introduced to stop 'zero-tax companies' that showed large profits to shareholders but little taxable income. For non-corporate taxpayers such as LLPs and firms claiming certain deductions, a parallel 'Alternate Minimum Tax' applies. Companies that opt for the 22% concessional regime of 2019 are outside MAT.
With reference to the corporate tax reform of 2019 in India, consider the following statements:
1. Domestic companies were given the option of paying income tax at a base rate of 22% if they gave up specified exemptions and incentives.
2. Companies that opt for this concessional rate are not required to pay Minimum Alternate Tax.
3. The concessional regime was made compulsory for every domestic company from the financial year 2019-20.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Ordinance of September 2019, later the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 2019, inserted section 115BAA: a domestic company could choose a base rate of 22% (about 25.17% with surcharge and cess) by giving up exemptions and incentives, and such a company is outside the Minimum Alternate Tax. A separate 15% base rate (section 115BAB) was offered to new manufacturing companies set up on or after 1 October 2019 that started production within the deadline. Statement 3 is wrong: the regime is optional; companies with large unused incentives could stay in the old system.
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Domestic companies in India pay a Dividend Distribution Tax on the dividends they declare, and the dividends are then exempt in the hands of shareholders. Statement-II: The Finance Act, 2020 shifted the taxation of dividends from the company to the shareholder, who now pays tax on dividends at the applicable rate.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer (d) & explanation
Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct. Until March 2020, a domestic company paid Dividend Distribution Tax (DDT) and the shareholder received the dividend tax- free (with a separate levy on very large dividends). The Finance Act, 2020 abolished DDT for dividends declared on or after 1 April 2020; dividends are now added to the shareholder's income and taxed at the slab or applicable rate, with tax deducted at source above a threshold. The change made the system fairer to small investors and to foreign investors, who can claim treaty rates and credits in their home countries.
0 / 0 correct
Prelims PYQs on this topic (2)
With reference to India's decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
- 1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
- 2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the "Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements".
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong because the 6% equalisation levy (2016) was introduced through a separate chapter of the Finance Act, 2016, not the Income Tax Act. The Indian business paying a foreign firm like Google or Facebook for online ads deducted it. Statement 2 is wrong because the levy is not an income tax, so the foreign firm cannot claim credit for it under a DTAA in its home country. This is exactly why it was designed outside the Income Tax Act.
A 2% levy on e-commerce was added in 2020 and dropped in 2024. The 6% levy on ads ended in April 2025. Notice the reason: India is moving towards the OECD Two-Pillar global tax deal and is also under US trade pressure.
statement 2 sounds fair. Tax treaties cover taxes on income; the levy was kept outside the Income Tax Act for exactly this reason.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following is *not* a feature of “Value Added Tax” ?
Answer (d) & explanation
Statement (d) is not a feature of VAT, so it is the answer. Value Added Tax, introduced in most Indian States from April 2005, was a multi-point, destination-based tax (a). It taxed the value added at each stage of production and distribution, with input tax credit for tax already paid, avoiding the cascading 'tax on tax' (b). Its burden was finally borne by the consumer (c). But VAT was a State subject that replaced State sales tax; the Centre only facilitated it through the Empowered Committee of State Finance Ministers. So (d) reverses the roles.
Notice what came next: VAT was subsumed into the Goods and Services Tax (GST) from 1 July 2017, after the 101st Amendment (2016), with the GST Council under Article 279A. GST 2.0 reforms in September 2025 moved to mainly two slabs, 5% and 18%. Trap: VAT was a State tax, with the Centre as facilitator.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Write an answer
In 150 words, explain the significance of Taxation with one recent example.
Flashcards (8)
Why are indirect taxes regressive?
Same rate takes a bigger share of poorer incomes.
Centre's net tax BE 2026-27?
₹28.7 lakh crore.
New income-tax law in force?
Income-tax Act, 2025, from 1 April 2026.
Effective zero-tax income (new regime)?
₹12 lakh (₹12.75 lakh salaried).
Is agricultural income taxed by the Centre?
No.
2019 corporate base rate?
22%.
Equalisation levy rate on online ads?
6%.
Pillar Two minimum rate?
15%.
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Next topic · 7.2 →Taxation: GST, customs and excise