UPSC Prelims 2011 Polity questions: topic-wise weightage
UPSC Prelims 2011 asked 8 polity questions in GS Paper I, spread over 5 topics. See the polity weightage for 2011 below, then attempt each question with the official answer and an explanation.
Polity 2011: questions by topic
- Making of the Constitution, Preamble, features and schedules1
- Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties2
- Parliament and state legislatures2
- Federalism, emergency provisions, local government2
- Constitutional and statutory bodies, elections, amendments, rights and governance1
Counted from the 8 questions on this page, tagged by topic in the Battle IAS PYQ bank.
Seeing 8 Polity questions spread over 5 topics can feel overwhelming. That's exactly why the Battle IAS PYQ Book maps every question topic by topic, so you know what to study first. Download free sample
Making of the Constitution, Preamble, features and schedules 1
Karl Marx explained the process of class struggle with the help of which one of the following theories ?
Answer (d) & explanation
Dialectical materialism is the answer (d). Marx took Hegel's dialectic (thesis, antithesis, synthesis) but turned it to material life: history moves forward through conflict between classes that own the means of production and classes that do not, until a classless society emerges. (a) is wrong: liberalism stresses individual rights and markets, the very order Marx attacked. (b) is wrong: existentialism (Kierkegaard, Sartre) is about individual choice and meaning, not classes. (c) is wrong: Marx admired Darwin, but class struggle is not built on evolution of species.
Notice the wider frame: Marx's historical materialism sees the economic base shaping the political and cultural superstructure. Trap: 'Darwin' tempts because both describe struggle and change.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties 2
In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to ?
- 1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
- 2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
- 3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct (c). Article 30 lets religious and linguistic minorities establish and administer their own educational institutions (1). Notified minorities also benefit from the Prime Minister's New 15-Point Programme (2006) for scholarships, credit and jobs (3). Statement 2 is wrong: the President never nominates a member of a religious minority to the Lok Sabha. The only nomination was for Anglo-Indians (Article 331), and it ended in January 2020 under the 104th Amendment. So (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice the list: six communities are notified under the NCM Act, 1992: Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis and Jains (added 2014). Trap: 'automatically nominates' sounds plausible but has no basis.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is *not* a fundamental duty ?
Answer (a) & explanation
To vote in public elections is correct (a), as it is not a fundamental duty. The Fundamental Duties in Article 51A (Part IVA, added by the 42nd Amendment, 1976, on the Swaran Singh Committee's advice) include abiding by the Constitution and respecting its ideals (d), developing scientific temper (b) and safeguarding public property (c). Voting is a constitutional and statutory right under Article 326 and the RP Act, not a listed duty. So (b), (c) and (d) are duties.
Notice the count: there are 11 duties; the 11th, parents providing education to children aged 6 to 14, came by the 86th Amendment (2002). The duties are not enforceable by courts. Trap: voting feels like a civic duty, but it is not in 51A.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Parliament and state legislatures 2
The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from
Answer (b) & explanation
Parliament is correct (b). Article 114 says no money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under an Appropriation Act passed by Parliament. This is the core of legislative control over the executive's purse. (a) is wrong: the President recommends money bills and gives assent, but does not authorise spending. (c) and (d) are wrong: the Prime Minister and Finance Minister prepare and present the Budget, but Parliament must vote it.
Notice the related tools: Vote on Account (Article 116) lets Parliament grant money before the Budget is passed; the Contingency Fund (Article 267) is at the President's disposal for emergencies, later recouped by Parliament; and the CAG audits spending afterwards.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
When the annual Union Budget is *not* passed by the Lok Sabha,
Answer (d) & explanation
The Prime Minister resigns is correct (d). Defeat of the Budget in the Lok Sabha means the government has lost the House's confidence, since money bills are central to governing. Under Article 75(3) the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, so the Prime Minister must resign with the whole ministry. (a) is wrong: there is no simple re-presentation. (b) is wrong: the Rajya Sabha has only a 14-day recommending role on money bills and cannot rescue a defeated budget. (c) is wrong: responsibility is collective, not of one minister.
Notice the related devices: a cut motion (policy cut, economy cut, token cut) that passes is also treated as a defeat of the government.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Federalism, emergency provisions, local government 2
The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following ?
- 1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
- 2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
- 3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
UPSC's official key is (d), all three, but this key is doubtful. The 73rd Amendment (1992) clearly created State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections (Article 243K, statement 2) and State Finance Commissions, set up every five years to review panchayat finances (Article 243I, statement 3). Statement 1 is the problem: District Planning Committees sit in Article 243ZD, in Part IXA on municipalities, inserted by the 74th Amendment. The official key counts them because DPCs consolidate the plans of panchayats too, so many books argue (c). For the exam, follow the official key, but know the article numbers.
Notice the related items: the 73rd Amendment added the Eleventh Schedule (29 subjects), a five-year term (243E) and one-third reservation for women (243D). National Panchayati Raj Day is 24 April.
Official UPSC key: (d). Some sources print (c); we follow the official key.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee
- 1. is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.
- 2. prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.
- 3. has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (a) & explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (a). Article 243ZE, added by the 74th Amendment (1992), provides a Metropolitan Planning Committee for every metropolitan area, defined as a population of 10 lakh or more (1). The MPC prepares the draft development plan for the whole metropolitan area (2). Statement 3 is wrong: the MPC is a planning body; schemes are carried out by state agencies, development authorities and municipalities, so it has no sole responsibility. So (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the related body: District Planning Committees (Article 243ZD) consolidate rural and urban plans. In practice, many states have not set up working MPCs; Kolkata's is often cited as the active one. Trap: 'sole' makes statement 3 an overreach.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Constitutional and statutory bodies, elections, amendments, rights and governance 1
India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available to them under the law ?
- 1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools.
- 2. Preferential allotment of land for setting up business.
- 3. Ramps in public buildings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (d) & explanation
All three are correct (d). The Persons with Disabilities Act, 1995, in force in 2011, gave free education up to 18 years in suitable schools (1), preferential allotment of land at concessional rates for business, housing and special schools (2), and barrier-free access such as ramps in public buildings (3). So options (a), (b) and (c) leave out real benefits.
Notice the later law: the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 replaced it, raised recognised disabilities from 7 to 21, raised job reservation from 3% to 4%, kept free education for children with benchmark disability aged 6 to 18, and set accessibility deadlines. The Accessible India Campaign (Sugamya Bharat, 2015) pushes ramps and accessible transport.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
All years by topic
Every question from 2011 to 2026, grouped by syllabus topic, with year-wise trends.