UPSC Prelims PYQs

CSAT (Paper II): previous-year questions

1280 real UPSC Prelims questions (2011–2026) with the official answer and a clear explanation. 400 of them came in the last five papers.

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Questions per year, counted from the official papers.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)
Read the passage

How is deflation done? Most countries use a method called ‘double deflation’, where input and output prices are deflated separately. Consider a manufacturer importing oil for use in production. If oil prices fall, output prices do not and quantities remain the same, real value added should not change. But if the same deflator is used for inputs and outputs, as in India, it would look as if the manufacturer had become more productive.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  • 1. Real value should not change in the instance of static output cost and unchanged quantities against falling oil prices.
  • 2. Deflators are to be used separately for inputs and outputs, and this is a practice universally adopted by all economies.

Select the answer using the code given below.

Answer (d) & explanation

Neither statement is correct (d). Step 1: the passage says if oil prices fall while output prices and quantities stay the same, real value added should not change. Statement 1 changes this to "real value" and "static output cost", which distorts the idea. So 1 is not correct as worded. Step 2: statement 2 says separate deflators are used "universally" by all economies. But the passage says India uses the same deflator for both. So 2 is false. Step 3: options (a), (b) and (c) fail.

Tip: in economic passages, exact terms matter: "value added" is not "value", and "price" is not "cost". "Universally" is disproved by a single exception, here India.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)

Consider the following statements :

Every red is blue. Every blue is green. Every green is yellow.

Which of the following statements denoted by P, Q and R are correct?

P. Every blue is yellow.

Q. Every red is green.

R. Every red is yellow.

Select the answer using the code given below.

Answer (d) & explanation

All three, P, Q and R, are correct (d). Step 1: "Every red is blue" means red is inside blue. Likewise blue is inside green, and green is inside yellow. So red ⊂ blue ⊂ green ⊂ yellow, like circles nested one inside another. Step 2: P: blue sits inside green, which sits inside yellow, so every blue is yellow ✓. Q: red ⊂ blue ⊂ green, so every red is green ✓. Step 3: R: red sits inside all the larger circles, so every red is yellow ✓. Options (a), (b) and (c) leave one out.

Tip: "every A is B" chains pass along: if A is inside B and B inside C, then A is inside C. Draw nested circles to check.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)

A shopkeeper employs a delivery boy and gives him a motorcycle for home delivery. For every delivery, the boy is given ₹ 5. At the end of the day, he also gets ₹ 2 for every kilometre of the distance covered in the day. The boy wants to earn more than ₹ 500 a day, but does not want to travel more than 100 km. Which of the following numbers of deliveries would definitely meet his target?

Answer (d) & explanation

The question cannot be answered due to insufficient data (d). Step 1: earnings = 5 × deliveries + 2 × km, and km can be anything from 0 to 100. Step 2: with 90 deliveries, he earns 450 + 2k. That crosses ₹500 only if he rides more than 25 km. With 80 or 85 deliveries he needs even more km. Step 3: we are not told how far he travels. So no option is definitely enough. Options (a), (b) and (c) would work only with enough kilometres.

Tip: "definitely" means it must work in the worst case. Here the worst case is very few kilometres, and then 101 or more deliveries would be needed.

Trap

the word "definitely" decides it. "Possibly" would give a different answer.

One trap spotted is one mark saved. The PYQ Book lines up every trap UPSC has set, so you walk in prepared. Try the free sample

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)
Read the passage

When SARS-CoV-2 was first detected in 2019, it was a truly novel virus for the world. At that time, no one in the world had been exposed to SARS-CoV-2 or had specific immunity against it. In contrast, people across the world have been exposed to HMPV for decades and the virus is well-studied. HMPV and SARS-CoV-2 belong to two very different virus families with fundamentally different characteristics and epidemiology, with strong seasonality seen in HMPV, unlike SARS-CoV-2. Both viruses cause different severity of symptoms, particularly over the long term, and the affected population segments do not fully overlap. In general, HMPV causes milder illness with deaths being very rare and with no long-term post-viral symptoms.

Which of the following reflect the intent of the writer in the above passage?

  • 1. To evolve methodologies for objective analysis of the two viruses
  • 2. To establish the epidemiological similarities and differences between the two viruses
  • 3. To offer a better understanding of the remedies of HMPV when analysed in conjunction with SARS-CoV-2

Select the answer using the code given below.

Answer (d) & explanation

None of the three reflects the writer's intent (d). Step 1: the writer only contrasts the two viruses: HMPV is old and well-studied, seasonal and usually mild; SARS-CoV-2 was new. The aim is to show they are different, easing fear about HMPV. Step 2: statement 1, evolving methods of analysis, is not the aim. Statement 2 speaks of similarities and differences, but the passage stresses only differences. Step 3: statement 3, remedies for HMPV, is never discussed. So options (a), (b) and (c) fail.

Tip: intent questions ask "why did the writer write this?" Here, the answer is reassurance through contrast, which none of the statements captures.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)

If the product of the HCF and LCM of two distinct numbers is the cube of one of the numbers, then which of the following statements is/are correct?

  • I. The difference of the numbers is an even number.
  • II. One of the numbers is a perfect square.

Select the answer using the code given below.

Answer (c) & explanation

Both statements are correct (c). Step 1: for any two numbers, HCF × LCM = product of the numbers. So a × b = a³ (the cube of one of them), giving b = a². Step 2: statement II: b = a² is a perfect square. True. Step 3: statement I: the difference is a² − a = a(a − 1), the product of two consecutive numbers. One of any two consecutive numbers is even, so the product is always even. True. Example: 3 and 9: HCF 3 × LCM 9 = 27 = 3³; difference 6 is even, and 9 is a square. Options (a), (b) and (d) fail.

Tip: remember HCF × LCM = a × b for two numbers. It turns many HCF-LCM puzzles into simple algebra.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)
Read the passage

‘Kalagram’, the cultural village set up at the Maha Kumbh Mela, unfolded as a mosaic of India’s diverse regions, each represented by seven meticulously crafted ‘Sanskriti Angans’—stepping through the grand portal was like entering another world. These thematic zones, inspired by iconic temples like the Dakshineshwar Kali Temple and the Brahma Mandir, were treasure troves of regional artistry. Bengal’s Pattachitra paintings, Assam’s bamboo crafts, Tamil Nadu’s Thanjavur paintings, and Madhya Pradesh’s tribal sculpture—all were showcased in these living galleries where 230 master artisans breathed life into them using age-old techniques, their hands shaping India’s ancient history into creations to behold.

Which of the following conclusions are valid?

  • 1. Seven Sanskriti Angans, representing different regions of India, had been showcased in Kalagram.
  • 2. Regional artistry was recognised via the inspiration drawn from iconic temples.
  • 3. India’s ancient history had been crafted by the contemporary craftsmanship of 230 artisans into creations to behold.
  • 4. Art forms from all regions of India had been showcased in these living galleries.

Select the answer using the code given below.

Answer (a) & explanation

Conclusions 1 and 2 are valid (a). Step 1: the passage says Kalagram had seven "Sanskriti Angans" representing India's diverse regions (1 is valid). Step 2: it says these thematic zones were inspired by iconic temples like Dakshineshwar Kali Temple and Brahma Mandir, and were treasure troves of regional artistry (2 is valid). Step 3: conclusion 3 calls the craft "contemporary", but the artisans used "age-old techniques". Conclusion 4 says art from "all regions"; only some are named. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.

Tip: watch for single-word changes: "age-old" became "contemporary", and "diverse" became "all". Kalagram was set up by the Ministry of Culture at the Maha Kumbh in Prayagraj (13 January–26 February 2025).

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)

In an objective type question paper, 5 marks are awarded for a correct answer and 2 marks are deducted for a wrong answer. A student attempted all the questions and got a score of 69. Had he been awarded 4 marks for a correct answer and 1 mark deducted for a wrong answer, he would have scored 84. How many questions were there in the question paper?

Answer (b) & explanation

There were 81 questions (b). Step 1: let c be correct and w wrong answers. First scheme: 5c − 2w = 69. Second scheme: 4c − w = 84. Step 2: from the second, w = 4c − 84. Put it in the first: 5c − 2(4c − 84) = 69, so 5c − 8c + 168 = 69, giving 3c = 99 and c = 33. Then w = 132 − 84 = 48. Step 3: he attempted all questions, so total = 33 + 48 = 81. Check: 165 − 96 = 69 ✓; 132 − 48 = 84 ✓. Options (a), (c) and (d) fail.

Tip: two marking schemes give two equations. Solve, then check both before answering.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)
CandidateScore in component 1Score in component 2Score in component 3
1546
2465
3328
4943
5882

In a recruitment process, the selection of candidates is based on their performance in three components. The weightages of the components 1, 2 and 3 are 0·2, 0·3 and 0·5, respectively. Use the data given below and find the cutoff score if exactly three candidates are to be selected :

Answer (a) & explanation

The cutoff score is 5.1 (a). Step 1: weighted score = 0.2 × (component 1) + 0.3 × (component 2) + 0.5 × (component 3). Candidate 1: 1.0 + 1.2 + 3.0 = 5.2. Candidate 2: 0.8 + 1.8 + 2.5 = 5.1. Candidate 3: 0.6 + 0.6 + 4.0 = 5.2. Step 2: candidate 4: 1.8 + 1.2 + 1.5 = 4.5. Candidate 5: 1.6 + 2.4 + 1.0 = 5.0. Step 3: the top three are 5.2, 5.2 and 5.1. The cutoff is the third score, 5.1. Options (b), (c) and (d) would select too few.

Tip: the cutoff is the lowest score that still gets selected. Calculate every weighted score carefully before ranking.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)
Read the passage

How is deflation done? Most countries use a method called ‘double deflation’, where input and output prices are deflated separately. Consider a manufacturer importing oil for use in production. If oil prices fall, output prices do not and quantities remain the same, real value added should not change. But if the same deflator is used for inputs and outputs, as in India, it would look as if the manufacturer had become more productive.

Which of the following assumptions is/are valid?

  • 1. Deflation strategies can be used to make manufacturers appear to be doing better than they actually are.
  • 2. When input and output prices are both deflated against a single input price, it is referred to as ‘double deflation’.

Select the answer using the code given below.

Answer (a) & explanation

Only assumption 1 is valid (a). Step 1: the passage says that using one deflator for inputs and outputs, as in India, makes it "look as if the manufacturer had become more productive". So deflation methods can make firms appear better than they are (1). Step 2: assumption 2 says double deflation means deflating both against a single price. But the passage defines double deflation as deflating inputs and outputs separately. So 2 reverses the definition. Step 3: options (b), (c) and (d) fail.

Tip: check definitions word for word against the passage. Deflating means removing the effect of price changes to find real growth, as in real GDP.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)

How many times does 5 appear in all two-digit positive integers?

Answer (b) & explanation

The digit 5 appears 19 times (b). Step 1: 5 in the tens place: 50, 51, …, 59 = 10 times. Step 2: 5 in the units place: 15, 25, 35, 45, 55, 65, 75, 85, 95 = 9 times (05 is not a two-digit number). Step 3: total = 10 + 9 = 19. The number 55 has two 5s, and both are counted. Option (a), 18, counts 55 once. Options (c) and (d) wrongly add 05 or 5.

Tip: count place by place. The question asks how many times the digit appears, not how many numbers contain it (that would be 18).

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)
Read the passage

When SARS-CoV-2 was first detected in 2019, it was a truly novel virus for the world. At that time, no one in the world had been exposed to SARS-CoV-2 or had specific immunity against it. In contrast, people across the world have been exposed to HMPV for decades and the virus is well-studied. HMPV and SARS-CoV-2 belong to two very different virus families with fundamentally different characteristics and epidemiology, with strong seasonality seen in HMPV, unlike SARS-CoV-2. Both viruses cause different severity of symptoms, particularly over the long term, and the affected population segments do not fully overlap. In general, HMPV causes milder illness with deaths being very rare and with no long-term post-viral symptoms.

Which of the following statements reflect the logical and rational inferences that can be drawn from the passage?

  • 1. HMPV has, historically, had longer documentation of studies when compared with SARS-CoV-2.
  • 2. The two viruses are different from each other and this results in markedly different outcomes amongst those affected.
  • 3. Long-term impacts of the two viruses are dissimilar and this is an important differentiator between them.
  • 4. One of the common factors between the two viruses is seasonal specificity.

Select the answer using the code given below.

Answer (b) & explanation

Inferences 1, 2 and 3 follow (b). Step 1: HMPV has been around "for decades" and is "well-studied", while SARS-CoV-2 was new in 2019. So HMPV has a longer record of study (1). Step 2: the viruses are "fundamentally different" and cause different severity, so outcomes differ (2). Step 3: severity differs "particularly over the long term"; HMPV has no long-term after-effects. So long-term impact is a key difference (3). Statement 4 fails: seasonality is seen in HMPV "unlike SARS-CoV-2", so it is a difference, not a common factor. Options (a), (c) and (d) fail.

Tip: "unlike" signals a difference. Do not turn it into a similarity.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)

If x and y are two digits and the number 4x5y790 is divisible by 11, then what is the remainder, if x + y is divided by 11?

Answer (d) & explanation

1. Test for 11: add every second digit, add the others, and the two totals must differ by 0 or 11.

2. Digits 4, x, 5, y, 7, 9, 0. First group: 4 + 5 + 7 + 0 = 16. Second group: x + y + 9.

3. So 16 − (x + y + 9) = 7 − (x + y) must be 0 or −11. That gives x + y = 7 or x + y = 18.

4. 7 ÷ 11 leaves 7, and 18 ÷ 11 also leaves 7. Either way the remainder is 7.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)
Read the passage

‘Kalagram’, the cultural village set up at the Maha Kumbh Mela, unfolded as a mosaic of India’s diverse regions, each represented by seven meticulously crafted ‘Sanskriti Angans’—stepping through the grand portal was like entering another world. These thematic zones, inspired by iconic temples like the Dakshineshwar Kali Temple and the Brahma Mandir, were treasure troves of regional artistry. Bengal’s Pattachitra paintings, Assam’s bamboo crafts, Tamil Nadu’s Thanjavur paintings, and Madhya Pradesh’s tribal sculpture—all were showcased in these living galleries where 230 master artisans breathed life into them using age-old techniques, their hands shaping India’s ancient history into creations to behold.

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Answer (a) & explanation

The incorrect statement is (a): paintings from four States are not mentioned. Step 1: the passage names only two paintings: Pattachitra of Bengal and Thanjavur paintings of Tamil Nadu. Step 2: Assam is mentioned for bamboo crafts and Madhya Pradesh for tribal sculpture, not paintings. So four States appear, but only two for paintings: (a) is wrong. Step 3: (b) matches "like entering another world"; (c) matches "living galleries"; (d) matches thematic zones "inspired by iconic temples". These are correct, so they are not the answer.

Tip: in "not correct" questions, check each detail against the text. Count carefully when an option gives a number.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)
Read the passage

The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, or the JJ Act, 2015 allows for the possibility for trying adolescents above 16 as adults if they are accused of committing a heinous offence. A heinous offence is one with a minimum punishment of seven years. Offences such as culpable homicide and causing death by negligence, which are common in drunken driving cases, are not heinous offences because they do not have a prescribed minimum punishment. The JJ Act, amended in 2021, now categorises an offence that has no minimum sentence, but has a maximum sentence of seven years or more as a serious offence which nonetheless, in the opinion of activists, does not merit the transfer of a case to the adult criminal justice system.

Which of the following conclusions is/are valid?

  • 1. Only a ‘serious’ offence as categorised by the revised JJ Act, justifies the transfer of a case to the adult judicial system.
  • 2. The JJ Act, 2021, categorises an offence as a serious offence based on the maximum sentence it carries, rather than on the minimum sentence.

Select the answer using the code given below.

Answer (b) & explanation

Only conclusion 2 is valid (b). Step 1: the passage says the 2021 amendment treats an offence with no minimum sentence but a maximum of seven years or more as a "serious offence". So the label depends on the maximum, not the minimum (2). Step 2: conclusion 1 says only a serious offence justifies transfer to the adult system. But the passage links transfer to heinous offences (minimum seven years), and activists say a serious offence "does not merit" transfer. So 1 fails. Step 3: options (a), (c) and (d) fail.

Tip: keep legal categories apart: heinous (minimum 7 years) versus serious (no minimum, maximum 7+ years). The JJ Act, 2015, allows children aged 16–18 accused of heinous offences to be tried as adults after assessment.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)

Consider the following three statements, namely S1, S2 and S3:

S1. Protecting the environment is an existential exigency for humans, given the impact of environmental degradation on climate change.

S2. Scientific consensus has not been achieved with regard to the extent of the contribution of human intervention to climate change.

S3. Environmental activism includes climate alarmism and other extremist points of view that often become the focus of climate change deniers.

Which of the following relationships based on the statements given above is/are correct?

  • 1. S3 is a counterpoint to S1
  • 2. S3 is unconnected to S1 and S2
  • 3. S2 could be the reason for S3

Select the answer using the code given below.

Answer (d) & explanation

Only relationship 3 is correct (d). Step 1: relationship 1: S3 says some environmental activism is extreme and gets targeted by deniers. That does not argue against S1 (protecting the environment is vital). So S3 is not a counterpoint to S1. Step 2: relationship 2 says S3 is unconnected to S1 and S2. But S3 is linked to S2. Step 3: relationship 3: since scientists have not agreed on how much humans cause climate change (S2), there is room for both alarmism and denial (S3). So S2 could be a reason for S3. Options (a), (b) and (c) fail.

Tip: a counterpoint must oppose the main claim. A statement about how a debate is conducted is not opposition to the cause itself.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)

A pattern formed by two characters a and b is repeated more than once in the following string :

× b × a × a × × a × a × bab

What is × × in the 7th and 8th positions from the left in the above string?

Answer (d) & explanation

Positions 7 and 8 are bb (d). Step 1: the string has 15 places, so try a block of 5 letters repeated three times: (× b × a ×)(a × × a ×)(a × b a b). Step 2: read each column across the three blocks. Position 1: ×, a, a → a. Position 2: b, ×, × → b. Position 3: ×, ×, b → b. Position 4: a, a, a → a. Position 5: ×, ×, b → b. Every known letter fits, so the block is abbab. Step 3: places 7 and 8 are the 2nd and 3rd letters of the second block: b, b. Options (a), (b) and (c) fail.

Tip: for repeating patterns, try block sizes that divide the total length. Stack the blocks and fill each column from the known letters.

Trap

a block of 3 fails: the 2nd column would need both b and a.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)

X travels 6 km on a bicycle with average speeds of 5 km per hour, 10 km per hour and 4 km per hour during the first 1 km, the next 2 km and the remaining 3 km, respectively. Y travels the same distances with average speeds of 4 km per hour, 10 km per hour and 5 km per hour, respectively. How many minutes early will Y complete the journey if both X and Y start at the same time?

Answer (d) & explanation

Y finishes 6 minutes earlier (d). Step 1: time = distance ÷ speed. X: 1 km at 5 km/h = 12 min; 2 km at 10 km/h = 12 min; 3 km at 4 km/h = 45 min. Total 69 min. Step 2: Y: 1 km at 4 km/h = 15 min; 2 km at 10 km/h = 12 min; 3 km at 5 km/h = 36 min. Total 63 min. Step 3: 69 − 63 = 6 minutes. Options (a), (b) and (c) fail.

Tip: work in minutes: time (min) = distance ÷ speed × 60. Y wins because Y is faster over the longer last stretch.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)

Three variables x, y and z take values 2, 3, 4 or 5 such that their values are always distinct. If M and N denote the largest possible value and the smallest possible value, respectively, for the expression {(x × y) + z}; then M – N is

Answer (c) & explanation

M − N is 13 (c). Step 1: to make (x × y) + z largest, multiply the two biggest numbers and add the next one: M = 5 × 4 + 3 = 23. (Check: 5 × 3 + 4 = 19 and 4 × 3 + 5 = 17 are smaller.) Step 2: to make it smallest, multiply the two smallest and add the next smallest: N = 2 × 3 + 4 = 10. (Check: 2 × 4 + 3 = 11 is bigger.) Step 3: M − N = 23 − 10 = 13. Options (a), (b) and (d) come from other pairings.

Tip: multiplication has a bigger effect than addition, so give the product the biggest (or smallest) numbers. Quickly check one or two other pairings to be safe.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)
Read the passage

Was it the sun-dappled ambience, the strawberries and cream, the frustration of Flavio Cobolli’s unforced errors against Serbian Novak Djokovic on Centre Court or simply the crushing weight of being a 64-year-old man in the third act of a very public life? Whatever the reason, Hugh Grant, the actor, deserves empathy. There he was, in the Royal Box at Wimbledon, flanked by Britain’s well-dressed and well-rested spectators, watching the men’s singles quarterfinals, when the actor did something quietly radical : head at a tilt, eyes closed, utterly unbothered, he took a nap. So praise be to Grant for serving up an unexpected ace. In that small, delicious moment, he didn’t merely catch forty winks, he made an elegant case for surrender. Not to laziness, but to limits. To the body’s quiet wisdom over society’s relentless performance metrics. Wimbledon had its tennis. The perpetually sleep-deprived discovered a leading man, not of action, but of rest.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  • 1. Radical action can also be attributed to mild surrender where one acts against societal expectations.
  • 2. Submitting to one’s limitations, given the effect of age and other factors, ought not to be conflated with laziness.
  • 3. ‘Leading man’ usually refers to one who plays the lead role in a movie; in this instance the implication is that Hugh Grant is performing the role of not an action hero, but that of a resting one!

Select the answer using the code given below.

Answer (c) & explanation

All three statements are correct (c). Step 1: statement 1: the writer calls Hugh Grant's nap "quietly radical" and "an elegant case for surrender". Napping in the formal Royal Box goes against social expectation, so mild surrender becomes radical action. Correct. Step 2: statement 2 matches "Not to laziness, but to limits": giving in to age and tiredness is not laziness. Correct. Step 3: statement 3 explains the pun in the last line: "a leading man, not of action, but of rest". A leading man is a film's lead actor; here Grant leads in resting. Correct. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.

Tip: in light, witty passages, look for wordplay. The nap happened at Wimbledon in July 2025, during the Djokovic–Cobolli quarterfinal.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)

The weight of X, in kg, is denoted by X. The weights of A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S are measured. Given :

A + B + C + D = 17

A + C = 6

P + Q + S + D = 15

P + Q + R + B = 17

P = R and Q = S

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Answer (b) & explanation

1. From the first two equations: B + D = 11.

2. Put R = P and S = Q, then add the last two equations: 3P + 3Q + B + D = 32, so 3(P + Q) = 21 and P + Q = 7.

3. 7 > 6 = A + C, so (b) is true. (a) fails because 11 > 7. P and Q separately cannot be fixed, so (c) and (d) cannot be claimed.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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