UPSC Prelims 2014 · GS Paper I

UPSC Prelims 2014 Polity questions: topic-wise weightage

UPSC Prelims 2014 asked 11 polity questions in GS Paper I, spread over 6 topics. See the polity weightage for 2014 below, then attempt each question with the official answer and an explanation.

Polity 2014: questions by topic

  1. Making of the Constitution, Preamble, features and schedules1
  2. Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties1
  3. Union and state executive3
  4. Parliament and state legislatures3
  5. Judiciary2
  6. Constitutional and statutory bodies, elections, amendments, rights and governance1

Counted from the 11 questions on this page, tagged by topic in the Battle IAS PYQ bank.

Seeing 11 Polity questions spread over 6 topics can feel overwhelming. That's exactly why the Battle IAS PYQ Book maps every question topic by topic, so you know what to study first. Download free sample

Making of the Constitution, Preamble, features and schedules 1

UPSC Prelims 2014 · GS Paper I

Consider the following statements :

A Constitutional Government is one which

  • 1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
  • 2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer (b) & explanation

A constitutional government is one where the constitution limits the power of the State so that individuals stay free (2 correct). Statement 1 puts it backwards: placing restrictions on liberty in the interest of State authority describes an authoritarian state, not a constitutional one. So the answer is (b).

This idea is called constitutionalism: rule of law, separation of powers, fundamental rights and judicial review all work to keep power in check. UPSC has returned to it in 2014, 2020, 2021 and 2023. Notice how Fundamental Rights in Part III are written mainly as limits on the State.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties 1

UPSC Prelims 2014 · GS Paper I

In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the

Answer (b) & explanation

Article 51, the last of the Directive Principles (Part IV), directs the State to promote international peace and security, maintain just and honourable relations between nations, respect international law and settle disputes by arbitration (b). The Preamble (a) speaks of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity but not international peace. The Fundamental Duties (c) in Article 51A deal with citizens' duties, and the Ninth Schedule (d) shields certain laws from judicial review.

Notice how Article 51 reflects Nehru's foreign policy of non-alignment and peaceful coexistence, and the Panchsheel principles of 1954.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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Union and state executive 3

UPSC Prelims 2014 · GS Paper I

Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

  • 1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
  • 2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
  • 3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Answer (c) & explanation

The Cabinet Secretariat, under the Prime Minister and headed by the Cabinet Secretary, prepares the agenda for Cabinet meetings (1 correct) and provides secretarial assistance to Cabinet committees (2 correct). It also records and follows up decisions and coordinates between ministries. Allocation of financial resources (3) is done through the Budget by the Finance Ministry and Parliament, so the answer is (c).

The Cabinet Secretariat also administers the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules. Notice how it differs from the Prime Minister's Office, which advises the PM directly on policy.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2014 · GS Paper I

Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?

  • 1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President's rule
  • 2. Appointing the Ministers
  • 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
  • 4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Answer (b) & explanation

The Governor uses personal discretion when sending a report to the President under Article 356 for President's rule (1 correct) and when reserving a Bill for the President's consideration under Article 200 (3 correct). So the answer is (b). Ministers are appointed on the Chief Minister's advice under Article 164, not at discretion. Rules of business are made under Article 166(3) on the advice of the Council of Ministers, not as a discretionary power.

Article 163 allows discretion only where the Constitution provides it. Notice how the Supreme Court in S.R. Bommai (1994) restricted misuse of Article 356.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2014 · GS Paper I

Consider the following statements :

  • 1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
  • 2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer (a) & explanation

Statement 1 repeats Article 77(3) almost word for word: the President makes rules for the convenient transaction of business and for allocating it among ministers. Statement 2 is wrong because Article 77(1) says all executive action of the Government of India is expressed in the name of the President, not the Prime Minister. So the answer is (a).

The rules made under Article 77(3) are the Allocation of Business Rules and the Transaction of Business Rules. Notice how the President is the formal head while real power lies with the Council of Ministers led by the PM, the heart of a parliamentary system.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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Parliament and state legislatures 3

UPSC Prelims 2014 · GS Paper I

Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

Answer (b) & explanation

The Estimates Committee is the largest, with 30 members, all from the Lok Sabha (b). The Public Accounts Committee (a) and the Committee on Public Undertakings (c) have 22 members each: 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha. The Committee on Petitions (d) is smaller, with 15 members in the Lok Sabha.

The three financial committees keep a check on the executive: Estimates suggests economies, PAC examines the CAG's audit reports, and Public Undertakings reviews PSUs. A minister cannot be a member of them. Notice how the Estimates Committee being Lok Sabha-only mirrors that House's control over money.

Trap

PAC is the most famous, not the largest.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2014 · GS Paper I

Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

Answer (d) & explanation

The Tenth Schedule contains the anti-defection provisions (d). It was added by the 52nd Amendment (1985). The 91st Amendment (2003) removed the "split" exception and kept only mergers backed by two-thirds of the legislature party. The other schedules are unrelated: the Second covers salaries and allowances, the Fifth the administration of Scheduled Areas, and the Eighth the official languages.

The Speaker or Chairman decides on disqualification, and the Supreme Court in Kihoto Hollohan (1992) held that such decisions are open to judicial review. Notice how this schedule links party discipline to the stability of governments.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2014 · GS Paper I

Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India :

  • 1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
  • 2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer (c) & explanation

Both are correct (c). The Constitution speaks of collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Lok Sabha (Article 75(3)) but never uses the words "no-confidence motion" (1 correct). The motion comes from Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha Rules of Procedure and can be moved only in the Lok Sabha (2 correct). It needs the support of at least 50 members to be admitted, and no reason has to be given.

If it passes, the whole Council of Ministers must resign. Notice how it differs from a censure motion, which must state reasons and targets specific policies without forcing resignation.

Trap

Article 75(3) feels like a mention. It states the principle; the motion itself comes from the Rules.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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Judiciary 2

UPSC Prelims 2014 · GS Paper I

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

Answer (c) & explanation

Article 131 gives the Supreme Court exclusive original jurisdiction over disputes between the Union and the States, or between States (c). Such cases begin directly in the Supreme Court. Advisory jurisdiction (a) under Article 143 lets the President seek the Court's opinion. Appellate jurisdiction (b) covers appeals from High Courts, and writ jurisdiction (d) under Article 32 protects Fundamental Rights.

Disputes over inter-State river waters are excluded from Article 131 by Article 262 and go to tribunals. Notice how these jurisdictions keep the federal balance, with the Court as umpire.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2014 · GS Paper I

The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

Answer (b) & explanation

Article 124(1) fixed the Supreme Court's strength and allowed Parliament to change it by law (b). Parliament has done so through the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956, amended several times; the sanctioned strength is now 34, including the Chief Justice, since 2019. The President (a) appoints judges but cannot add posts. The Chief Justice (c) and the Law Commission (d) can only advise.

The original Constitution provided for eight judges in all. Notice how judicial appointments follow the collegium system that grew out of the Judges cases.

Trap

the President appoints judges but cannot add posts.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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Constitutional and statutory bodies, elections, amendments, rights and governance 1

UPSC Prelims 2014 · GS Paper I

Which of the following are associated with 'Planning' in India?

  • 1. The Finance Commission
  • 2. The National Development Council
  • 3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
  • 4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
  • 5. The Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Answer (c) & explanation

Under the planning system of 2014, the Planning Commission drafted each Five-Year Plan, the National Development Council approved it, and Parliament discussed and adopted it. So 2 and 5 are correct (c). The Finance Commission shares taxes between the Centre and States and is not a planning body. UPSC did not count the Ministries of Rural and Urban Development, which carry plans out, as part of the planning machinery.

The NDC included the Prime Minister, Union Cabinet ministers and all Chief Ministers. Notice how NITI Aayog's Governing Council now plays a similar role of bringing the Centre and States together.

Trap

the Finance Commission handles money, so it looks like a planning body. Its job is tax devolution under Article 280.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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All years by topic

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