UPSC Prelims 2015 Polity questions: topic-wise weightage
UPSC Prelims 2015 asked 13 polity questions in GS Paper I, spread over 7 topics. See the polity weightage for 2015 below, then attempt each question with the official answer and an explanation.
Polity 2015: questions by topic
- Making of the Constitution, Preamble, features and schedules1
- Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties3
- Union and state executive2
- Parliament and state legislatures4
- Judiciary1
- Federalism, emergency provisions, local government1
- Constitutional and statutory bodies, elections, amendments, rights and governance1
Counted from the 13 questions on this page, tagged by topic in the Battle IAS PYQ bank.
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Making of the Constitution, Preamble, features and schedules 1
The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to
Answer (a) & explanation
Both schedules exist to protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes (a). The Fifth Schedule governs Scheduled Areas and tribes in most States, with Tribes Advisory Councils and special powers for the Governor. The Sixth Schedule sets up autonomous district councils in tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. They do not fix State boundaries (b) or deal with border States (d). Panchayats (c) are in the Eleventh Schedule.
PESA (1996) extends panchayat self-rule to Fifth Schedule areas. Notice how the Constitution balances integration with protection of tribal identity.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties 3
Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy :
- 1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
- 2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Both statements are correct (c). Fundamental Rights give political democracy; the Directive Principles aim at social and economic democracy: livelihood, fair wages, health, education and reduced inequality (1). Article 37 makes them non-justiciable: no court can enforce them, though they are fundamental in the governance of the country (2).
B. R. Ambedkar called them "novel features" of the Constitution, and they draw on the Irish Constitution. In Minerva Mills (1980) the Court held that harmony between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs is part of the basic structure. Notice how many laws, from MGNREGA to the RTE, give life to these principles.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
"To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India" is a provision made in the
Answer (d) & explanation
"To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India" is a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(c) (d). The Preamble (a) speaks of "unity and integrity of the Nation" but not in these exact words. The Directive Principles (b) and Fundamental Rights (c) do not contain this provision.
The Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment (1976) on the advice of the Swaran Singh Committee, and the eleventh duty, on education for children, came through the 86th Amendment (2002). They draw on the Soviet Constitution. Notice how rights and duties are meant to go together.
the Preamble has "unity and integrity of the Nation". Look for the verbs "uphold and protect", which belong to Part IVA.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
The ideal of 'Welfare State' in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
Answer (b) & explanation
The ideal of a Welfare State is enshrined in the Directive Principles of State Policy (b). Article 38 asks the State to promote the welfare of the people by securing social, economic and political justice, and other articles cover livelihood, fair wages, health and education. The Preamble (a) states the goal of justice but does not lay out welfare duties. Fundamental Rights (c) are limits on the State, and the Seventh Schedule (d) divides subjects.
UPSC repeated this question almost word for word in 2020. Notice how welfare laws like the Food Security Act give life to these principles.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Union and state executive 2
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
- 2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Article 53 vests the executive power of the Union in the President, who exercises it on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. The Civil Services Board, which advises on senior postings and transfers, is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary, not the Prime Minister.
The PM chairs the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, which approves top appointments. The Supreme Court in T.S.R. Subramanian (2013) asked for Civil Services Boards to curb arbitrary transfers. Notice the gap between formal and real executive in a parliamentary system.
the PM holds real power, so statement 1 feels true. The Constitution vests it formally in the President.
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Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the
Answer (d) & explanation
A system is parliamentary when the executive answers to the legislature. Article 75(3) makes the Council of Ministers collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, which is the defining feature (d). Direct election of the Lok Sabha (a) and Parliament's power to amend the Constitution (b) can exist in presidential systems too. The Rajya Sabha being a permanent body (c) is a feature of bicameralism, not of parliamentary government.
India borrowed this model from Britain's Westminster system. Notice how the President is the nominal head while real power lies with the PM and Cabinet, who stay in office only with the Lok Sabha's confidence.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Parliament and state legislatures 4
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
- 2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
- 3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (b). On a Money Bill the Rajya Sabha can neither reject nor amend; it can only make recommendations within 14 days (Article 109). Demands for Grants are voted only in the Lok Sabha (Article 113). Statement 3 is wrong: the Annual Financial Statement is laid before both Houses (Article 112), and the Rajya Sabha does discuss it.
The Speaker's certificate decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill (Article 110). Notice how control over money rests with the directly elected House, reflecting the principle of "no taxation without representation".
"cannot discuss". The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on grants, but it can discuss the Budget.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by
Answer (a) & explanation
Under Article 108(4), a Bill at a joint sitting is passed by a simple majority of the total members of both Houses present and voting (a). Three-fourths (b), two-thirds (c) and absolute majorities (d) are not required.
A joint sitting is called by the President to resolve a deadlock on an ordinary or financial Bill, but not on a Money Bill or a Constitution Amendment Bill. The Speaker presides. Since the Lok Sabha is larger, it usually prevails. Only three joint sittings have been held: on the Dowry Prohibition Bill (1961), the Banking Service Commission Repeal Bill (1978) and POTA (2002).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements :
- 1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
- 2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
- 3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Only statement 2 is correct (c). The Union Budget is prepared by the Budget Division of the Department of Economic Affairs, not the Department of Revenue, so statement 1 is wrong. No money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund without a law passed by Parliament (Articles 114 and 266(3)). Statement 3 is wrong: the Public Account holds money such as provident funds and deposits that belong to others, and payments from it need no vote.
The third fund, the Contingency Fund (Article 267), is held by the President for emergencies. Notice how parliamentary control over money ensures accountability.
the Department of Revenue sounds like the Budget office. It handles taxes, not the Budget document.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
- 2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Article 171(1) caps a Legislative Council at one-third of the Assembly's strength, with a minimum of 40, so it cannot exceed half. The Council elects its own Chairman from among its members under Article 182; the Governor does not nominate him.
The Governor nominates about one-sixth of the members, from fields such as literature, science, art, cooperation and social service. Only a few States have Councils, among them Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. Under Article 169, Parliament can create or abolish one on the Assembly's resolution.
"half" for one-third, "nominates" for elects. Two wrong words in two lines.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Judiciary 1
Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?
Answer (d) & explanation
The Supreme Court is the custodian of the Constitution (d). It interprets the Constitution, enforces Fundamental Rights under Article 32 and strikes down laws that violate it through judicial review. The President (a) swears to "preserve, protect and defend" the Constitution but has no power to enforce it. The Prime Minister (b) heads the executive, and the Lok Sabha Secretariat (c) is an administrative office.
In Kesavananda Bharati (1973) the Court laid down the basic structure doctrine, limiting Parliament's power to amend. Notice how this makes the Court the final guardian of constitutional values.
the President's oath has the words "protect and defend", which pulls you to (a).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Federalism, emergency provisions, local government 1
The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?
- 1. People's participation in development
- 2. Political accountability
- 3. Democratic decentralization
- 4. Financial mobilization
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer (c) & explanation
Panchayati Raj exists to bring decisions closer to people (democratic decentralisation) and to involve them in planning and development (people's participation). So 1 and 3 are its fundamental objects (c). Political accountability (2) and financial mobilisation (4) may follow, but UPSC's key does not count them as the basic purpose.
The 73rd Amendment (1992) gave panchayats constitutional status, with a three-tier structure, reserved seats for women and SCs/STs, State Election Commissions and State Finance Commissions. The idea was first recommended by the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957). Notice how it reflects Gandhi's vision of gram swaraj.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Constitutional and statutory bodies, elections, amendments, rights and governance 1
The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the
Answer (d) & explanation
NITI Aayog was set up on 1 January 2015, by a Cabinet resolution, to replace the Planning Commission (1950) (d). Neither body is constitutional or statutory. The Finance Commission (b) is a constitutional body under Article 280 and continues. The Human Rights Commission (a) is statutory under the 1993 Act, and the Law Commission (c) is set up by the government for fixed terms; neither was replaced.
NITI Aayog works as a think tank and promotes cooperative federalism, with a Governing Council of the PM and all Chief Ministers. Notice how planning shifted from top-down plans to advice and indices.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
All years by topic
Every question from 2011 to 2026, grouped by syllabus topic, with year-wise trends.