UPSC Prelims 2017 Polity questions: topic-wise weightage
UPSC Prelims 2017 asked 22 polity questions in GS Paper I, spread over 7 topics. See the polity weightage for 2017 below, then attempt each question with the official answer and an explanation.
Polity 2017: questions by topic
- Making of the Constitution, Preamble, features and schedules4
- Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties6
- Union and state executive2
- Parliament and state legislatures2
- Judiciary1
- Federalism, emergency provisions, local government3
- Constitutional and statutory bodies, elections, amendments, rights and governance4
Counted from the 22 questions on this page, tagged by topic in the Battle IAS PYQ bank.
Seeing 22 Polity questions spread over 7 topics can feel overwhelming. That's exactly why the Battle IAS PYQ Book maps every question topic by topic, so you know what to study first. Download free sample
Making of the Constitution, Preamble, features and schedules 4
One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of
Answer (a) & explanation
Equality means the absence of privileges (a). In political theory, equality means no person or group gets special rights by birth, caste, wealth or status. Harold Laski said equality first means the absence of special privilege and second means adequate opportunities for all. Restraints (b) still exist in an equal society, since the law restrains everyone equally. Competition (c) can be healthy with equal opportunity. Ideology (d) has nothing to do with it.
The Constitution puts this into practice through Articles 14–18. Article 15 bans discrimination, Article 17 abolishes untouchability, and Article 18 abolishes titles, removing hereditary privilege. Notice that protective discrimination (reservations) is not a privilege. It helps those held back, to create real, not just formal, equality.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
Answer (b) & explanation
Economic liberty is not in the Preamble (b). The Preamble promises liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship, so options (a), (c) and (d) all appear in it. The economic idea in the Preamble is "Justice, social, economic and political", borrowed from the Russian Revolution. It does not mention economic liberty. It also promises equality of status and of opportunity and fraternity, ensuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation.
The 42nd Amendment (1976) added "socialist, secular" and "integrity". The Supreme Court upheld these words in 2024. Notice that the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity come from the French Revolution.
"economic" is in the Preamble, so (b) feels safe. It sits with justice, not liberty.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
Answer (a) & explanation
Democracy calls on the intelligence and character of ordinary people (a). Democracy rests on the belief that ordinary citizens can judge public questions and take part in their own government. By asking them to vote, debate and hold power to account, it develops their intelligence and character. This was J. S. Mill's main defence of representative government. Strengthening executive leadership (b), relying on one dynamic leader (c), or relying on a band of party workers (d) all describe forms of rule by the few.
Notice how the Constitution builds this trust: universal adult franchise from 1950, with no literacy or property test, at a time when most Indians could not read. Ambedkar warned that political democracy must grow into social democracy.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
Answer (a) & explanation
The Preamble reflects the mind of the makers (a). The Preamble grew out of the Objectives Resolution, which Nehru moved on 13 December 1946 and the Assembly adopted in January 1947. In Berubari (1960), the Supreme Court called it the key to open the minds of the makers. In Kesavananda Bharati (1973), it said the Preamble is part of the Constitution and can be amended, but not in a way that harms the basic structure. Fundamental Rights (b), Directive Principles (c) and Fundamental Duties (d) carry out these ideals but do not sum them up.
The Preamble was amended once, by the 42nd Amendment. Notice its four parts: the source of authority (We, the People), the nature of the state, its objectives, and the date of adoption (26 November 1949).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties 6
Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
Answer (b) & explanation
Workers' participation in management was added by the 42nd Amendment (b). The 42nd Amendment (1976) added Article 43A (workers in management), Article 39A (equal justice and free legal aid) and Article 48A (protecting the environment and wildlife). It also amended Article 39(f) on healthy child development. The other options were already in the original Constitution: equal pay for men and women (a) is Article 39(d); the right to work, education and public assistance (c) is Article 41; and a living wage and humane working conditions (d) are Article 43.
Later amendments added more principles: the 44th added Article 38(2) on reducing inequalities, the 86th changed Article 45 on early childhood care, and the 97th added Article 43B on cooperatives.
(a) sounds modern, but equal pay was there from 1950.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Rights are claims of citizens against the State (c). Rights protect people from misuse of power, so they limit the State. That is why Article 12 defines "State" broadly to include government bodies and other authorities, and why Article 13 voids laws that break Fundamental Rights. Rights are not claims of the State against citizens (a); that describes duties or the State's powers. They are not mere privileges (b, d), because a privilege belongs to a few, while a right belongs to everyone equally.
Some rights also apply against private persons, such as Articles 15(2), 17, 23 and 24. Notice the contrast with Fundamental Duties (Article 51A), which are what citizens owe in return, and which cannot be enforced in court.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon
- 1. legislative function.
- 2. executive function.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Directive Principles (Part IV) are positive directions telling the State what it should do, such as securing livelihoods, equal pay and free legal aid. They are not limits on what Parliament or the government can do. Under Article 37, they are not enforceable in court, so a law cannot be struck down just for ignoring a DPSP. It is Fundamental Rights (Part III) that act as limits on both legislative and executive action, through Article 13.
Courts still use DPSPs to read laws and to judge "reasonable restrictions". In Minerva Mills (1980), the Supreme Court said the Constitution rests on the balance between Parts III and IV. Notice Granville Austin's phrase: together they are the "conscience of the Constitution".
"limitations" belongs to Part III. Part IV gives goals, not limits.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
- 1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
- 2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong because Article 51A (Part IVA), added by the 42nd Amendment (1976) on the advice of the Swaran Singh Committee, lists duties but provides no way to enforce them. Statement 2 is wrong because the duties are not tied to legal duties in the Constitution. They are mainly moral obligations. Some laws do cover similar ground, such as the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 and the Wildlife and Forest Acts, but that is separate legislation.
There were 10 duties at first, and the 86th Amendment (2002) added an eleventh, requiring parents to educate children aged 6–14. Notice that the Verma Committee (1999) found ways to put some duties into practice. Courts also use them to judge whether laws are reasonable.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
Answer (a) & explanation
Rights are correlative with duties (a). My right to life means others have a duty not to harm me, and my freedom of speech carries a duty not to defame others. So rights and duties are two sides of the same coin. Rights cannot exist apart from society (b), because they are social claims recognised by the community. Saying only rights (c) or only duties (d) matter misses this balance.
The 42nd Amendment (1976) added Part IVA (Fundamental Duties) so citizens would see duties alongside rights. Gandhi said that "real rights are a result of performance of duty." Notice that the Supreme Court has said duties can help courts judge whether restrictions on rights are reasonable, as in AIIMS Students' Union (2001).
this answer sits uneasily with 2017 Q36, which says Fundamental Duties are not correlative to legal duties. This one is about rights and duties in general; that one is about Article 51A.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
- 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
- 2. Abolition of untouchability
- 3. Protection of the interests of minorities
- 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1 and 4 are correct (c). The Right against Exploitation is made up of Article 23, which bans human trafficking, begar and forced labour (1), and Article 24, which bans employing children under 14 in factories, mines and hazardous work (4). Statement 2 is wrong because the abolition of untouchability is Article 17, under the Right to Equality. Statement 3 is wrong because the interests of minorities are protected under Articles 29–30, the Cultural and Educational Rights.
These rights also apply against private persons. Notice the laws that carry them out: the Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976 and the Child Labour Amendment Act, 2016, which bans all work below 14 and hazardous work for those aged 14–18.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Union and state executive 2
The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that
Answer (c) & explanation
The main advantage is that the executive stays responsible to the legislature (c). In a parliamentary system, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha under Article 75(3). It must answer every day through questions, debates and motions, and it can be removed by a no-confidence motion. Option (a) describes a presidential system, where the two branches work separately. Option (b) is wrong because stability and continuity are seen as the strengths of the presidential system. Option (d) is wrong because the head of government can be changed without an election.
The Constituent Assembly chose responsibility over stability, as Ambedkar explained. Notice the features of the parliamentary system: a nominal head of state, dual executive, majority rule, and collective responsibility.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government :
Answer (c) & explanation
The principle is collective responsibility to the people (c). In the cabinet form of government, the Council of Ministers stands or falls together. Under Article 75(3), it is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, and through it to the people. Ministers must defend cabinet decisions in public or resign. Reducing criticism (a), speeding up work (b), and strengthening the leader (d) are not its defining principle; at most, they are side effects.
The Prime Minister is "first among equals", though in practice the PM is much more powerful. Notice the difference between collective responsibility (to the Lok Sabha, Art. 75(3)) and individual responsibility (to the President, Art. 75(2)). Ministers hold office "during the pleasure" of the President.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Parliament and state legislatures 2
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements :
- 1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
- 2. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong because a private member is any MP who is not a minister, whether elected or nominated. A nominated member is just one kind of private member. Statement 2 is wrong because private members' Bills have become law before. Fourteen have been passed since 1952, and the last was in 1970: the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Act. In 2015 the Rajya Sabha passed Tiruchi Siva's transgender rights Bill, the first in 45 years to clear one House, but it never passed the Lok Sabha.
Private members' business is taken up on Friday afternoons. Notice how such Bills shape debate even when they fail: the government later passed its own Transgender Persons Act, 2019.
"private" does not mean "nominated". It means "not a minister".
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through
- 1. Adjournment motion
- 2. Question hour
- 3. Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
All three are tools of control (d). An adjournment motion (1) sets aside normal business to discuss an urgent matter of public importance. It needs 50 members to support it, is allowed only in the Lok Sabha, and works as a kind of censure. Question Hour (2), the first hour of a sitting, makes ministers answer starred (oral), unstarred (written) and short-notice questions. Supplementary questions (3) follow up on oral answers and often catch ministers off guard.
Other tools include calling attention motions, the Zero Hour, debates on the President's address, no-confidence motions and financial committees such as the PAC. Notice that ministers answer to Parliament because of collective responsibility (Art. 75(3)).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Judiciary 1
In India, Judicial Review implies
Answer (a) & explanation
Judicial review is the courts' power to rule on whether laws and executive orders are constitutional (a). In India, the Supreme Court and High Courts can test laws and government action against the Constitution and strike down anything that conflicts with it, mainly through Articles 13, 32 and 226. Courts do not judge the wisdom of a law (b), only whether it is valid. They do not check Bills before assent (c); only the advisory opinion route under Article 143 comes close. Reviewing its own judgements (d) is review jurisdiction under Article 137, which is different.
In Minerva Mills (1980) and L. Chandra Kumar (1997), the Supreme Court made judicial review part of the basic structure. Notice the US origin of the idea: Marbury v. Madison (1803).
(d) is "review" in the sense of Article 137, a different power with the same word.
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Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Federalism, emergency provisions, local government 3
Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in
Answer (b) & explanation
Local self-government is democratic decentralisation (b). It moves power and decision-making down to elected bodies close to the people, such as panchayats and municipalities. The Balwantrai Mehta Committee (1957) used the term "democratic decentralisation" and recommended the three-tier panchayati raj system, which Rajasthan began first at Nagaur in 1959. Federalism (a) divides power between the Union and States. Administrative delegation (c) just passes tasks to officials, not to elected bodies. Direct democracy (d), where people decide directly, happens only in the gram sabha.
The 73rd and 74th Amendments (1992) gave these bodies constitutional status. Notice the Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules, with 29 and 18 subjects that can be handed down to them.
(c) delegation keeps control with the top. Decentralisation hands it to elected local bodies.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State?
- 1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
- 2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
- 3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are not necessary results (b). Under Article 356, the President takes over the functions of the State government, so the Council of Ministers is removed (2). That always happens. The State Assembly may be dissolved or kept in suspended animation (1), so dissolution is not automatic. In S. R. Bommai (1994), the Supreme Court said the Assembly should not be dissolved until Parliament approves the proclamation. Local bodies are not affected at all (3), because they have their own constitutional status under the 73rd and 74th Amendments.
Parliament must approve President's rule within two months. It can then last six months at a time, up to three years. Notice that Bommai also made the proclamation open to judicial review.
read "not necessarily" slowly. Mark what must happen, then pick the rest.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
Answer (d) & explanation
Indian federalism is not the result of an agreement among the units (d). Article 1 calls India a "Union of States". Ambedkar explained that the federation did not come from an agreement among States, so no State has the right to leave it. This is unlike the USA, where independent states agreed to form a union. The other options are real features. India has an independent judiciary to settle Centre–State disputes (a). Powers are divided through the Seventh Schedule (b). States have unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha according to population (c), unlike the US Senate.
K. C. Wheare called India "quasi-federal". Notice the Supreme Court's view in S. R. Bommai (1994): federalism is part of the basic structure.
(c) sounds unfederal, but unequal Rajya Sabha seats are in fact how India works. The question asks what is not a feature.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Constitutional and statutory bodies, elections, amendments, rights and governance 4
For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
Answer (c) & explanation
Any citizen whose name is on an electoral roll can file (c). Under Section 4(d) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a Lok Sabha candidate must be an elector for any parliamentary constituency in India. They need not live in or be registered in the constituency they contest, so (b) is wrong. Being a resident (a) or just a citizen (d) is not enough. The person must be on a roll and must also meet Article 84: Indian citizenship, the oath, and a minimum age of 25. Reserved seats need an SC/ST candidate from any State.
Rajya Sabha candidates need to be 30, and since 2003 they need not live in the State they represent (Kuldip Nayar, 2006). Notice that a candidate can contest at most two seats (Section 33(7)).
(b) residence in the same constituency is not needed. (d) citizenship alone is not enough.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
- 2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong because India uses the first-past-the-post system for Lok Sabha and Assembly elections. The candidate with the most votes wins, even with far less than 50% when many candidates split the vote. Statement 2 is wrong because the Constitution only says the House shall choose a Speaker and a Deputy Speaker from among its members (Article 93; Article 178 for States). Giving the Deputy Speaker's post to the opposition is only a convention, and it has often been ignored. The 17th Lok Sabha (2019–24) had no Deputy Speaker at all.
Notice where India uses proportional representation instead: the Rajya Sabha, the President's election, and the Vice-President's election, all through a single transferable vote.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
Answer (c) & explanation
UPSC treated the right to vote and to be elected as a constitutional right (c). Article 326 says elections to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies shall be based on adult suffrage, so every citizen aged 18 and above can vote (the age was lowered from 21 by the 61st Amendment, 1988). Articles 84 and 173 set out who may be elected. Since these are in the Constitution but not in Part III, it is not a Fundamental Right (a), and it is not a natural right (b).
The Supreme Court has also called voting a statutory right under the Representation of the People Act. In Kuldip Nayar (2006) and Jyoti Basu (1982), it said voting and contesting are statutory rights. Notice that the freedom to express one's vote, such as the NOTA option, is protected under Article 19(1)(a) (PUCL, 2013).
(d) has support in Kuldip Nayar (2006), where the Court called these rights statutory. UPSC's answer rests on Article 326.
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Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
- 2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
- 3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Only statement 3 is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong because the Election Commission has been a three-member body since 1993: the Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. Statement 2 is wrong because the Commission itself fixes the schedule for general elections and by-elections, not the Home Ministry. Statement 3 is right because, under paragraph 15 of the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, it decides disputes between rival groups of a recognised party, as it did for the Shiv Sena and NCP in 2023–24.
Under the CEC and Other ECs Act, 2023, a panel of the PM, the Leader of the Opposition and a Union Minister chooses the members. Notice the earlier case Anoop Baranwal (2023), which had included the CJI on that panel.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
All years by topic
Every question from 2011 to 2026, grouped by syllabus topic, with year-wise trends.