UPSC Prelims 2018 Polity questions: topic-wise weightage
UPSC Prelims 2018 asked 12 polity questions in GS Paper I, spread over 6 topics. See the polity weightage for 2018 below, then attempt each question with the official answer and an explanation.
Polity 2018: questions by topic
- Making of the Constitution, Preamble, features and schedules3
- Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties1
- Union and state executive2
- Parliament and state legislatures4
- Federalism, emergency provisions, local government1
- Constitutional and statutory bodies, elections, amendments, rights and governance1
Counted from the 12 questions on this page, tagged by topic in the Battle IAS PYQ bank.
Seeing 12 Polity questions spread over 6 topics can feel overwhelming. That's exactly why the Battle IAS PYQ Book maps every question topic by topic, so you know what to study first. Download free sample
Making of the Constitution, Preamble, features and schedules 3
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
- 2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Only statement 1 is correct (a). Parliament can place laws in the Ninth Schedule by constitutional amendment, through Article 31B. This was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect land reform laws. Statement 2 is wrong because such laws are not beyond review. In I. R. Coelho (2007), a nine-judge bench ruled that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 (the Kesavananda date) can be tested against the basic structure, including the rights in Articles 14, 19 and 21.
The Schedule now holds 284 laws, including Tamil Nadu's 69% reservation law. Notice the trend of these cases: courts have steadily made sure no law escapes judicial review completely.
"cannot be examined by any court". That was the original idea, but Coelho ended it.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?
Answer (b) & explanation
Without laws, there is no liberty (b). Without law, the strong would rule the weak, and no one would be truly free. John Locke said, "where there is no law, there is no freedom." Law sets the conditions for liberty by protecting each person's freedom from others. More laws do not always mean less liberty (a), since good laws can expand freedom. Option (c) mixes up liberty with democracy. Option (d) is about stability, not the basic link between law and liberty.
T. H. Green and Harold Laski saw liberty as positive: the chance to develop oneself, which law helps create. Notice how the Constitution balances this: rights under Article 19 can be limited only by "reasonable restrictions" made by law.
(a) treats law and liberty as enemies. That is the "absence of restraint" view UPSC rejected again in 2019.
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Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the "Rule of Law"?
- 1. Limitation of powers
- 2. Equality before law
- 3. People's responsibility to the Government
- 4. Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct (c). A. V. Dicey's idea of the rule of law has three parts. First, there is no arbitrary power: government powers are limited by law (1). Second, there is equality before the law, so everyone, including officials, is subject to the ordinary courts (2). Third, rights and civil liberties are protected by the courts (4). Statement 3, "people's responsibility to the Government", turns this upside down. Under the rule of law, it is the government that answers to the law and to the people.
India includes the rule of law in Article 14. The Supreme Court made it part of the basic structure in Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975). Notice the related idea: the opposite of rule of law is "rule by law", where law is used as a tool of power.
statement 3 flips the direction. Under the rule of law, government answers to the people and the law.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties 1
Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?
Answer (c) & explanation
Article 21 and the freedoms in Part III imply it (c). In Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), a nine-judge bench unanimously held that privacy is a fundamental right. It is part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21, and also flows from the other freedoms in Part III, such as Articles 14 and 19. This overruled M.P. Sharma (1954) and Kharak Singh (1962). Option (a) links to equality and the 42nd Amendment, which have no such link. Option (b) wrongly uses untouchability (Article 17) and the DPSPs, which cannot be enforced. Option (d) wrongly uses child labour (Article 24).
Notice what followed: the Aadhaar judgment (2018), decriminalising homosexuality in Navtej Johar (2018), and the DPDP Act, 2023.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Union and state executive 2
With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements :
- 1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
- 2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Only statement 1 is correct (a). Under Article 55, the value of an MLA's vote = the State's population (1971 Census) ÷ the number of elected MLAs ÷ 1,000. It therefore differs from State to State. Uttar Pradesh has the highest value (208), and Sikkim the lowest (7) (1). Statement 2 is wrong because every elected MP, from either House, has the same vote value. It is the total value of all MLAs' votes divided by the total number of elected MPs, which was about 700 in 2022.
Voting is by proportional representation using the single transferable vote, with a secret ballot. Notice who votes: nominated MPs and MLCs do not, while elected MLAs of Delhi and Puducherry do (70th Amendment).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
- 2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Both statements are correct (c). Under Article 361(2), no criminal proceedings can be started or continued against the President or a Governor in any court during their term (1). Under Article 361(3), they cannot be arrested either. Civil cases about personal acts need two months' notice. Under Article 158(4), a Governor's emoluments and allowances cannot be reduced during their term (2). Their salary is charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State.
The Supreme Court is examining the limits of Governors' immunity in a 2024 case from West Bengal. Notice the related Presidential Reference (2025) on timelines for Governors to act on Bills, after the Tamil Nadu Governor judgment (April 2025).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Parliament and state legislatures 4
Consider the following statements :
- 1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
- 2. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was recognised for the first time in 1969.
- 3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only statement 2 is correct (b). Statement 1 is wrong because, in the first Lok Sabha (1952), the largest opposition party was the CPI, with 16 seats. The Swatantra Party was founded only in 1959 by C. Rajagopalachari. Statement 2 is right because Ram Subhag Singh of Congress (O) became the first recognised Leader of the Opposition in 1969, after the Congress split. Statement 3 is wrong because the practice requires 10% of the House, which is 55 members, not 75.
The LoP got statutory status under the Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977. Notice that the post was empty from 2014 to 2024. Rahul Gandhi became LoP in 2024 when Congress won 99 seats.
a wrong party, a right year, a wrong number. Check each part of a statement on its own.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?
Answer (b) & explanation
The Committee on Subordinate Legislation does this (b). Parliament passes laws and lets the executive make detailed rules, regulations, sub-rules and bye-laws under them. This is called subordinate or delegated legislation. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation, which both Houses have (15 members each), checks that these rules stay within the powers given by the parent Act or the Constitution. The Committee on Government Assurances (a) checks whether ministers keep promises made in the House. The Rules Committee (c) deals with the House's own procedure. The Business Advisory Committee (d) sets the timetable for business.
Notice that this is a real worry, as most Acts leave key details to rules. The Supreme Court strikes down rules that go beyond the parent Act (ultra vires).
(c) "Rules Committee" sounds like rules, but it handles the House's own rules.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statement (c) is not correct. Under Article 110(1), a Money Bill covers taxes (a), the custody of the Consolidated and Contingency Funds (b), government borrowing and guarantees (d), and appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund. Appropriation from the Contingency Fund is not included. That fund (Article 267), with a corpus of ₹30,000 crore, is held at the President's disposal for urgent, unforeseen spending. Money is drawn from it without an appropriation Bill and is later made up by a Bill from the Consolidated Fund.
A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, with the President's recommendation. The Speaker's certification is final, but in Rojer Mathew (2019) the Court referred the Aadhaar Money Bill question to a larger bench. Notice that the Rajya Sabha can only delay it for 14 days.
the question asks for the statement that is not correct. Two funds appear in (b), only one is right in (c).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
- 2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Only statement 1 is correct (a). Under Article 179(a), the Speaker must give up office if they stop being a member of the Assembly (1). Statement 2 is wrong because, when the Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker stays in office until just before the first meeting of the new Assembly. This keeps the office running in between. The same rule applies to the Lok Sabha Speaker under Article 94. The Speaker can also resign or be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the members at the time, after 14 days' notice.
The Speaker decides disqualification under the Tenth Schedule. In Subhash Desai (2023), the Supreme Court said Speakers must decide within a reasonable time. Notice the related Nabam Rebia (2016) rule: a Speaker facing a removal notice should not decide disqualifications.
"immediately". There is no gap: the old Speaker continues until the new House meets.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Federalism, emergency provisions, local government 1
If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then
Answer (b) & explanation
Option (b) is correct. Under Article 356(1)(b), the President can declare that the State legislature's powers will be exercised by or under the authority of Parliament. Option (a) is wrong: the Assembly is not automatically dissolved. It may be kept in suspended animation, and in S.R. Bommai (1994) the Supreme Court said it should not be dissolved until both Houses approve the proclamation. Option (c) is wrong: Article 19 is suspended only during a national emergency on grounds of war or external aggression (Article 358). Option (d) is wrong: the President does not make the laws himself; Parliament can delegate law-making to him when it is not in session.
President's Rule needs approval within two months, lasts six months at a time, and normally no more than three years.
(a) "automatically". Suspension is common; dissolution is a separate choice.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Constitutional and statutory bodies, elections, amendments, rights and governance 1
Consider the following statements :
- 1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
- 2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong because Section 9 of the Aadhaar Act, 2016 says the Aadhaar number is not proof of citizenship or domicile. Any resident, including a foreigner who has lived in India for 182 days in the past year, can get one. Statement 2 is wrong because the Act lets UIDAI omit or deactivate a number in cases set out in its regulations, such as fraud, duplicate entries or biometric problems.
In Puttaswamy (Aadhaar, 2018), the Supreme Court upheld Aadhaar for welfare and PAN linking. It struck down Section 57, which had let private firms demand it. Notice the recent debate during the SIR of electoral rolls (2025): the Supreme Court let Aadhaar be used as an identity document, but not as proof of citizenship.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
All years by topic
Every question from 2011 to 2026, grouped by syllabus topic, with year-wise trends.