UPSC Prelims 2019 Polity questions: topic-wise weightage
UPSC Prelims 2019 asked 13 polity questions in GS Paper I, spread over 6 topics. See the polity weightage for 2019 below, then attempt each question with the official answer and an explanation.
Polity 2019: questions by topic
- Making of the Constitution, Preamble, features and schedules3
- Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties1
- Union and state executive1
- Parliament and state legislatures3
- Judiciary3
- Constitutional and statutory bodies, elections, amendments, rights and governance2
Counted from the 13 questions on this page, tagged by topic in the Battle IAS PYQ bank.
Seeing 13 Polity questions spread over 6 topics can feel overwhelming. That's exactly why the Battle IAS PYQ Book maps every question topic by topic, so you know what to study first. Download free sample
Making of the Constitution, Preamble, features and schedules 3
The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
Answer (a) & explanation
The Ninth Schedule came under Jawaharlal Nehru (a). The First Amendment (1951), passed by the provisional Parliament, added the Ninth Schedule and Articles 31A and 31B. Laws placed in it were protected from challenge for violating fundamental rights, mainly to save land reform and zamindari abolition laws struck down by courts. Nehru was Prime Minister, so options (b), (c) and (d) are wrong. The amendment also added limits on free speech under Article 19(2), such as public order and friendly relations with foreign states.
Notice the limit set later: in I.R. Coelho (2007), the Court held that laws added after 24 April 1973 (the date of Kesavananda Bharati) can be tested against the basic structure. Tamil Nadu's 69% reservation law is in the Schedule.
the Ninth Schedule grew fastest under Indira Gandhi, so (c) feels right. The question asks who introduced it.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
Answer (b) & explanation
The Fifth Schedule allows it (b). The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration of Scheduled Areas and tribes in states other than the North-East. It lets the Governor make regulations to ban or limit the transfer of tribal land and to control moneylending. In Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1997), the Supreme Court used it to declare leases of tribal land to private mining companies null and void. The Third Schedule (a) has oaths, the Ninth (c) protects listed laws, and the Twelfth (d) lists municipal functions.
The Sixth Schedule covers tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Notice the related PESA Act, 1996 and the Niyamgiri case (2013), where gram sabhas rejected bauxite mining.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
Answer (d) & explanation
Option (d) is the most appropriate definition. In political theory, liberty means not only freedom from control, but the conditions that let people develop themselves fully. This is the positive view of liberty, held by thinkers such as T.H. Green and Harold Laski. Option (b), absence of restraint, is negative liberty; taken alone, it can turn into licence. Option (c), doing whatever one likes, is licence, not liberty, since it ignores others' rights. Option (a) is only one part of liberty.
The Preamble promises liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship, read with equality and fraternity. Ambedkar said these three form a "union of trinity". Notice how Article 19's freedoms come with reasonable restrictions, matching the positive view.
(b) is a textbook definition, but it is the narrow one. UPSC asked for the "most appropriate".
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties 1
Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice?
Answer (b) & explanation
Article 21 protects the right to marry a person of one's choice (b). In Shafin Jahan v. Asokan K.M. (2018), the Hadiya case, the Supreme Court set aside a Kerala High Court order that had annulled an adult woman's marriage. It held that the right to marry a person of one's choice is part of personal liberty under Article 21. Article 19 (a) covers freedoms such as speech and movement. Article 25 (c) protects freedom of religion. Article 29 (d) protects minorities' culture and language.
Notice the later cases: Shakti Vahini (2018), against khap panchayats and honour killings; and Supriya Chakraborty (2023), where the Court declined to legalise same-sex marriage, leaving it to Parliament.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Union and state executive 1
Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
Answer (c) & explanation
The Sarkaria Commission made this suggestion (c). The Sarkaria Commission on Centre–State relations (set up 1983, report 1988) said the Governor should be an eminent person, from outside the state, a detached figure without strong political links, and someone who had not been active in politics recently. It also said the Chief Minister should be consulted on the appointment. The First ARC (a) looked at administration. The Rajamannar Committee (b) was set up by Tamil Nadu to argue for more state autonomy. The NCRWC (d), led by Justice Venkatachaliah, reviewed the whole Constitution.
Notice the Punchhi Commission (2010), which later suggested a fixed five-year term. In State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor (2025), the Court set time limits for Governors to act on Bills.
Rajamannar was Tamil Nadu's own committee on State autonomy. It did not set qualities for Governors.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Parliament and state legislatures 3
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.
- 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
- 3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (a). Statement 1 is right because, under Article 102(1)(a), an MP who holds an office of profit under the government is disqualified, unless Parliament has exempted that office by law. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 lists such exempt offices. Statement 2 is right because the Act has been amended several times, five by 2019, for example in 2006 to save posts such as Chairperson of the National Advisory Council. Statement 3 is wrong because the Constitution never defines "office of profit". Courts decide using tests such as who appoints, who pays, and whether there is real gain.
Notice the famous cases: Jaya Bachchan (2006) and Sonia Gandhi's resignation in 2006. A 2024 draft Bill proposed replacing the 1959 Act with a simpler list.
"well-defined". The Constitution uses the phrase but never defines it.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements :
- 1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
- 2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Both statements are correct (c). Statement 1 is right because, under Article 176, the Governor addresses the Assembly at the start of the first session each year and after each general election. The address sets out the government's policy, and it is prepared by the state government. Statement 2 is right in practice. Each Assembly makes its own rules of procedure under Article 208. Where they are silent, Assemblies often look to Lok Sabha rules and practice. UPSC accepted both.
The President addresses Parliament in the same way under Article 87. Notice the recent disputes, in Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka, where Governors skipped or changed parts of the speech written by the state government, raising questions about their constitutional role.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?
- 1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
- 2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
- 3. Finance Commission
- 4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
- 5. NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer (a) & explanation
Ad hoc and standing committees of Parliament review regulators (a). Regulators such as TRAI, IRDAI and CERC are created by laws passed by Parliament and answer to it. They are examined by Parliament's ad hoc committees (1) and Department-Related Standing Committees (2), which question officials and study their reports. The Finance Commission (3) divides tax revenue between the Centre and states. The FSLRC (4), led by Justice B.N. Srikrishna, was a one-time body that suggested reforms to financial laws. NITI Aayog (5) is an advisory think tank. None of these reviews regulators.
India has 24 DRSCs, set up in 1993. Notice the debate on stronger oversight of regulators, such as the FSLRC's call for regular performance reviews.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Judiciary 3
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
- 2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
- 3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
- 4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Only statements 3 and 4 are correct (c). Statement 1 is wrong because, under Section 3 of the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, the Speaker or Chairman may admit or refuse the motion after consulting others. Statement 2 is wrong because the Constitution uses the words "proved misbehaviour or incapacity" but does not define them. Statement 3 is right because the detailed procedure, including a three-member inquiry committee, is in the 1968 Act. Statement 4 is right because Article 124(4) requires a special majority in each House: a majority of total membership and two-thirds of those present and voting.
No Supreme Court judge has ever been removed. Notice the cases: Justice V. Ramaswami (1993) and the 2025 motion against Justice Yashwant Varma over cash found at his home.
statement 1 reverses the Speaker's power. Refusal at the admission stage is allowed.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
Answer (b) & explanation
Option (b) captures the meaning. Article 142 lets the Supreme Court pass any decree or order needed to do "complete justice" in a case before it. The stem says ordinary laws cannot limit this power, which means the Court is not constrained by laws made by Parliament when using it. Options (a), (c) and (d) are about the Election Commission, the President's emergency powers and state legislatures, which have nothing to do with Article 142. In fact the President acts on Cabinet advice even for a Financial Emergency (Article 360).
The Court has used it in the Bhopal gas settlement, the Ayodhya verdict (2019), and to grant divorce directly (2023). Notice the limit set in Supreme Court Bar Association (1998): it cannot override express statutory provisions on a subject.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements :
- 1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
- 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong because High Courts can declare central laws unconstitutional under Article 226. The 42nd Amendment (1976) had added Article 226A to stop this, but the 43rd Amendment (1977) removed it and restored the power. Statement 2 is wrong because the Supreme Court can review constitutional amendments. Since Kesavananda Bharati (1973), an amendment can be struck down if it damages the basic structure. Examples include the 39th Amendment's clause on the PM's election (1975) and the 99th Amendment (NJAC, 2015).
The 42nd Amendment also tried to bar review of amendments (Article 368(4)), but Minerva Mills (1980) struck that down. Notice that judicial review itself is part of the basic structure (L. Chandra Kumar, 1997).
both statements describe the 42nd-Amendment era. That law was undone.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Constitutional and statutory bodies, elections, amendments, rights and governance 2
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
- 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only statement 2 is correct (b). Statement 1 is wrong because it was the 39th Amendment (1975), passed during the Emergency, that added Article 329A. It placed the election of the Prime Minister and Speaker beyond the courts, after the Allahabad High Court set aside Indira Gandhi's election. The Supreme Court struck down part of it in Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975), and the 44th Amendment (1978) removed it. Statement 2 is right because the 99th Amendment (2014) set up the National Judicial Appointments Commission. In 2015, in the Fourth Judges case, the Court struck it down for violating judicial independence, part of the basic structure.
So the collegium system continues. Notice the ongoing debate on the Memorandum of Procedure for judicial appointments.
39th and 44th are a pair: one did the damage, the other undid it. UPSC swapped them.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India :
- 1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
- 2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
- 3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
- 4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct (c). There are 75 PVTGs, living in 18 States and one Union Territory, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands (1). The criteria for PVTG status are pre-agricultural level of technology, low literacy, a subsistence economy, and a stagnant or declining population (2). The Irulars of Tamil Nadu, known for catching snakes and making antivenom, and the Konda Reddis of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana are on the list (4). Statement 3 is wrong because the number is 75, not 95.
The category came from the Dhebar Commission (1960–61) and was named PVTG in 2006. Odisha has the most PVTGs (13). Notice PM-JANMAN (2023), a ₹24,000 crore mission for PVTG housing, roads, water and health.
75 changed to 95. Learn the exact count.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
All years by topic
Every question from 2011 to 2026, grouped by syllabus topic, with year-wise trends.