UPSC Prelims 2020 Polity questions: topic-wise weightage
UPSC Prelims 2020 asked 17 polity questions in GS Paper I, spread over 6 topics. See the polity weightage for 2020 below, then attempt each question with the official answer and an explanation.
Polity 2020: questions by topic
- Making of the Constitution, Preamble, features and schedules5
- Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties4
- Union and state executive3
- Parliament and state legislatures3
- Judiciary1
- Constitutional and statutory bodies, elections, amendments, rights and governance1
Counted from the 17 questions on this page, tagged by topic in the Battle IAS PYQ bank.
Seeing 17 Polity questions spread over 6 topics can feel overwhelming. That's exactly why the Battle IAS PYQ Book maps every question topic by topic, so you know what to study first. Download free sample
Making of the Constitution, Preamble, features and schedules 5
A constitutional government by definition is a
Answer (d) & explanation
A constitutional government is a limited government (d). It works within limits set by a higher law, the constitution. Its powers are defined and restricted, and fundamental rights, separation of powers, judicial review and the rule of law stop it from becoming arbitrary. So it is limited by definition. Option (a) is wrong because government by a legislature need not be limited, as a legislature can also be absolute. Option (b) is wrong because a popular government can still be unlimited and even tyrannical. Option (c) is wrong because multiple parties do not make a government constitutional.
Notice that even the UK, without a written constitution, has constitutional government through conventions. India's Constitution limits Parliament too, through the basic structure doctrine.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?
- 1. Preamble
- 2. Directive Principles of State Policy
- 3. Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
All three reflect the UDHR (d). The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the UN on 10 December 1948, while India's Constitution was being drafted. The Preamble (1) echoes its ideals of justice, liberty, equality and the dignity of the individual. Many Directive Principles (2) match its social and economic rights, such as the right to work, education, a living wage and humane conditions of work (Articles 39, 41–43). Article 29(1) of the UDHR says everyone has duties to the community, which matches the Fundamental Duties in Part IVA (3).
Notice that 10 December is Human Rights Day. India's Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 created the NHRC, which follows the Paris Principles.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The Constitution of India defines its 'basic structure' in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
- 2. The Constitution of India provides for 'judicial review' to safeguard the citizens' liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong because the basic structure is not defined anywhere in the Constitution. It comes from court judgments, mainly Kesavananda Bharati (1973). Later cases added features such as federalism, secularism, democracy and judicial review. Statement 2 is wrong in UPSC's view because the phrase "judicial review" does not appear in the text. The power comes from Articles 13, 32, 136 and 226, and the courts treat it as part of the basic structure, but the Constitution does not "provide for" it in those words.
Notice the important basic structure cases: Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975), Minerva Mills (1980) and S.R. Bommai (1994), which added secularism and federalism.
the power of judicial review exists, so statement 2 feels right. UPSC was testing whether the Constitution "provides for" it in those words.
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Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is
Answer (a) & explanation
Both aim at a stateless society (a). Marx expected that after a revolution and a period of the dictatorship of the proletariat, a classless society would emerge and the state would wither away. Gandhi wanted an "enlightened anarchy" of self-governing villages (Gram Swaraj), where people would rule themselves and the state would not need force. Option (b) is wrong because Gandhi rejected class struggle and violence. Option (c) is wrong because Gandhi preferred trusteeship, where the rich hold wealth for society, instead of abolishing private property. Option (d) is wrong because Gandhi rejected economic determinism, putting moral and spiritual values first.
Notice the Gandhian ideas in the Constitution: village panchayats (Article 40), cottage industries (43) and prohibition (47).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
Answer (d) & explanation
Option (d) is correct. In Kesavananda Bharati (1973), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is part of the Constitution, reversing the opinion in Berubari Union (1960) that it was not. Option (b) is therefore wrong. The Preamble is not enforceable on its own in a court; a person cannot sue only because a Preamble ideal is not met. But it guides how the other provisions are read and explained, especially where the text is unclear. That is why option (c) is wrong, as it does not have the same legal effect as other parts. Option (a) goes too far in saying it has no legal effect at all.
The 42nd Amendment (1976) added "socialist", "secular" and "integrity". Notice that the Court upheld these words in November 2024.
(a) and (d) differ by one word: "independently". The Preamble has effect through the other parts.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties 4
Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?
Answer (d) & explanation
Protection against untouchability falls under the Right to Equality (d). Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form. Enforcing any disability arising from it is a punishable offence. It sits in the Right to Equality group, Articles 14 to 18, along with equality before law (14), no discrimination (15), equal opportunity in jobs (16) and abolition of titles (18). The Right against Exploitation (a) covers trafficking, forced labour and child labour (Articles 23–24). The Right to Freedom (b) covers Articles 19–22. Constitutional Remedies (c) is Article 32.
Article 17 is one of the few rights enforceable even against private persons. Notice the laws under it: the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 and the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989.
untouchability "feels" like exploitation (Articles 23-24), but it is placed with equality.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by
Answer (b) & explanation
A Directive Principle requires it (b). Article 50, in Part IV, directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State. The aim is that the same officers should not both run the administration and judge cases. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 put this into effect by creating separate judicial magistrates, while executive magistrates handle law and order. The Preamble (a) does not mention it. The Seventh Schedule (c) divides subjects between the Centre and states. It is not merely a convention (d).
Notice that judicial independence and the separation of powers are part of the basic structure. The CrPC was replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita in July 2024, which keeps this separation.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of Welfare State?
Answer (a) & explanation
The Directive Principles declare the welfare state ideal (a). Part IV, the Directive Principles of State Policy, sets out the State's social and economic goals. Article 38 asks the State to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order based on social, economic and political justice, and to reduce inequalities in income and status. Other articles cover livelihood, equal pay, health, education and help in old age. The Fundamental Rights (b) mainly limit the State. The Preamble (c) states broad ideals but does not set out the welfare state in detail. The Seventh Schedule (d) divides subjects.
Notice how welfare laws, such as MGNREGA, the Right to Education and the National Food Security Act, give legal force to DPSPs.
the Preamble speaks of justice, but the phrase "welfare of the people" lives in Article 38.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1. They shall be enforceable by courts.
- 2. They shall not be enforceable by any court.
- 3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct (d). Article 37 says the Directive Principles in Part IV shall not be enforceable by any court (2). But they are "fundamental in the governance of the country", and the State must apply them in making laws (3). Statement 1 is wrong because they cannot be enforced by courts. This is the main difference from the Fundamental Rights, which can be enforced under Article 32.
Courts have still used DPSPs to interpret rights. In Minerva Mills (1980), the Court said a balance between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs is part of the basic structure. Notice how Article 21A (education) and many welfare laws came from DPSPs. The idea came from Ireland's Constitution.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Union and state executive 3
A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which
Answer (b) & explanation
Option (b) defines a parliamentary system. Its key feature is responsible government: the executive stays in office only while it keeps the confidence of the legislature, and can be removed by a no-confidence motion. For the Union, Article 75(3) makes the Council of Ministers collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Option (a) is wrong because only the majority party or coalition forms the government. Option (c) describes a presidential system, as in the USA, where the people elect the executive. Option (d) is wrong because a fixed term with no removal is also a presidential feature.
India took this system from Britain. Notice the features: a nominal head (the President) and a real executive (the PM), and ministers drawn from Parliament.
(d) describes something close to a fixed-term system. "Cannot be removed" is the opposite of parliamentary rule.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?
Answer (d) & explanation
Bureaucracy is an agency for implementing public policy (d). In India, elected ministers make policy, and the permanent civil service carries it out. The bureaucracy is meant to be neutral, permanent and selected on merit. It gives continuity when governments change. Options (a), (b) and (c) describe possible effects of a good bureaucracy, such as strengthening democracy or federalism, or helping growth and stability, but not its defining role.
Sardar Patel called the All India Services the "steel frame" of India. Notice Articles 308–323 on services and the UPSC. Reforms such as Mission Karmayogi (2020) for training and lateral entry of experts, which was paused in 2024, are frequent debates.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.
- 2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong because Article 164(4) lets a non-member be a State minister for six months, but that person must be qualified to become an MLA. That requires a minimum age of 25, not just being a voter, who can be 18. Statement 2 is wrong because, under Section 8(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a person sentenced to two years or more is disqualified from the date of conviction for the period of the sentence plus six years after release, not permanently.
In Lily Thomas (2013), the Court removed the protection that let sitting MPs and MLAs keep their seats while appealing. Notice the 2025 debate on a lifetime ban for convicted politicians, which the Centre opposed.
"eligible to vote" (age 18) slipped in for "qualified to be a member" (age 25).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Parliament and state legislatures 3
Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in
Answer (b) & explanation
The Rajya Sabha is equal in amending the Constitution (b). Under Article 368, an amendment Bill must pass each House separately by a special majority: a majority of total membership and two-thirds of those present and voting. There is no joint sitting to break a deadlock, so the Rajya Sabha is fully equal. Option (a) is wrong because creating a new All India Service begins with a Rajya Sabha resolution under Article 312, which is a special power of the Rajya Sabha, not an equal one. Options (c) and (d) are wrong because no-confidence motions and cut motions belong only to the Lok Sabha, to which the government is responsible.
Notice the Rajya Sabha's other special power: Article 249, letting Parliament make laws on State List subjects.
(a) is a power of the Rajya Sabha, but it is exclusive, not "equal".
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include 'The Macro Economic Framework Statement'. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by
Answer (d) & explanation
The FRBM Act, 2003 requires it (d). Under Section 3 of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, the government must lay certain statements before Parliament with the Budget. These are the Macro-economic Framework Statement, which assesses growth, the fiscal balance and the external sector, and the Medium-term Fiscal Policy cum Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement. The Medium-term Expenditure Framework Statement is laid in the session after the Budget. It is not just a convention (a). Article 112 (b) requires the Annual Financial Statement, and Article 110 defines Money Bills. Article 113 (c) deals with demands for grants.
Notice the targets: the government set a 4.4% fiscal deficit target for 2025–26, and is shifting to a debt-to-GDP anchor of about 50% by 2031.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
- 2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
- 3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct (c). Statement 1 is right because Article 85 lets the President summon each House "at such time and place as he thinks fit". The only rule is that six months must not pass between two sessions. Statement 2 is wrong because the Constitution does not provide for three sessions. The Budget, Monsoon and Winter sessions are a convention. Statement 3 is right because there is no minimum number of sitting days.
The NCRWC suggested at least 120 days a year for the Lok Sabha, but sittings have fallen to about 55–70 days. Notice the new Parliament building, used since September 2023, where the first Bill passed was the Women's Reservation (106th Amendment) Act.
the "three sessions" are so familiar that students assume the Constitution lists them.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Judiciary 1
In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens?
- 1. Person with an annual income of less than ₹ 1,00,000
- 2. Transgender with an annual income of less than ₹ 2,00,000
- 3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than ₹ 3,00,000
- 4. All Senior Citizens
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (a) & explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (a). Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 lists who gets free legal aid. They include members of SCs and STs, women and children, persons with disabilities, victims of trafficking or disasters, industrial workmen, people in custody, and those whose income is below a limit set by rules. When this question was set, the rules covered persons with income under ₹1 lakh (1), and some states covered transgender persons with income under ₹2 lakh (2). Statement 3 is wrong because there is no OBC category. Statement 4 is wrong because not all senior citizens are covered, only those meeting income limits in some states.
This puts Article 39A into effect. Notice NALSA, the Lok Adalats, and the Legal Aid Defense Counsel system (2022).
"All" senior citizens. Age alone does not qualify anyone for free legal aid under the Act.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Constitutional and statutory bodies, elections, amendments, rights and governance 1
Consider the following statements :
- 1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
- 2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data.
- 3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
- 4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 2 and 4 are correct (b). In Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2018), the five-judge Aadhaar verdict, the Supreme Court upheld Aadhaar but limited it. Statement 1 is wrong because the Court allowed authentication records to be kept for six months, not three, cutting the earlier five years. Statement 2 is right because it struck down Section 57, which had let private companies use Aadhaar data. Statement 3 is wrong because Aadhaar cannot be made mandatory for insurance, bank accounts, mobile connections or school admissions. Statement 4 is right because Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act allows it to be required for subsidies and benefits paid from the Consolidated Fund.
Notice the 2019 amendment allowing voluntary private use, and the passing of the Aadhaar Act as a Money Bill, still being questioned.
"three months" is close to the real six. Close numbers are UPSC's favourite way to make a statement false.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
All years by topic
Every question from 2011 to 2026, grouped by syllabus topic, with year-wise trends.