UPSC Prelims 2022 Polity questions: topic-wise weightage
UPSC Prelims 2022 asked 10 polity questions in GS Paper I, spread over 5 topics. See the polity weightage for 2022 below, then attempt each question with the official answer and an explanation.
Polity 2022: questions by topic
- Making of the Constitution, Preamble, features and schedules1
- Union and state executive1
- Parliament and state legislatures3
- Judiciary3
- Constitutional and statutory bodies, elections, amendments, rights and governance2
Counted from the 10 questions on this page, tagged by topic in the Battle IAS PYQ bank.
Seeing 10 Polity questions spread over 5 topics can feel overwhelming. That's exactly why the Battle IAS PYQ Book maps every question topic by topic, so you know what to study first. Download free sample
Making of the Constitution, Preamble, features and schedules 1
If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
Answer (a) & explanation
Fifth Schedule status protects tribal land (a). Paragraph 5(2) of the Fifth Schedule lets the Governor make regulations for Scheduled Areas that can prohibit or restrict the transfer of tribal land to non-tribals, and control money-lending. Option (b) is wrong: autonomous district councils are part of the Sixth Schedule, used in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Option (c) is wrong: a Scheduled Area stays part of its State; it does not become a Union Territory. Option (d) is wrong: Special Category status came from the old Planning Commission criteria, not from the Fifth Schedule.
Notice the link with PESA, 1996, which gives gram sabhas in Fifth Schedule areas power over minor forest produce and land. Ten states now have Fifth Schedule areas.
option (b) describes the Sixth Schedule's autonomous councils. Keep the two Schedules apart.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Union and state executive 1
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
- 2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only statement 2 is correct (b). Statement 1 is wrong: the Constitution speaks only of a "Council of Ministers". The ranks of Cabinet Minister, Minister of State (Independent Charge), Minister of State and Deputy Minister come from practice, not from the Constitution. The word "Cabinet" appears only once, in Article 352, added by the 44th Amendment (1978). Statement 2 is right: Article 75(1A), added by the 91st Amendment (2003), caps the Council of Ministers at 15% of the Lok Sabha's total strength, Prime Minister included.
Notice that the 91st Amendment also set a minimum of 12 ministers in States, and barred defectors disqualified under the Tenth Schedule from becoming ministers.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Parliament and state legislatures 3
Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
- 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
- 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
- 3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (b) & explanation
Only the no-confidence motion is exclusive to the Lok Sabha (b). Item 2 is right: under Article 75(3), the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, so only it can pass a no-confidence motion and remove the government. Item 1 is wrong: an Emergency proclamation must be approved by both Houses within one month, by a special majority. Item 3 is wrong: impeachment of the President under Article 61 needs both Houses: one House frames the charge and the other investigates it.
Notice other Lok Sabha-only powers: Money Bills start only there (Article 110), and it alone can reject or reduce demands for grants. The Rajya Sabha's exclusive powers are under Articles 249 and 312.
revoking an Emergency is the Lok Sabha's alone (Article 352(7)), but approving it needs both Houses.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements :
- 1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
- 2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only statement 2 is correct (b). Statement 1 is wrong: the Tenth Schedule works the other way. A nominated member may join a political party within six months of taking the seat. After that, joining a party leads to disqualification. Statement 2 is right: the Schedule sets no deadline for the presiding officer to decide a defection petition. In Keisham Meghachandra Singh (2020), the Supreme Court said such cases should normally be decided within three months.
Notice that the Tenth Schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment (1985). The 91st Amendment (2003) removed the one-third split exception, leaving only a two-thirds merger. Kihoto Hollohan (1992) made the Speaker's decisions subject to judicial review.
"cannot" for "can". The six-month window is real, but its meaning is reversed.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :
- 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
- 2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
- 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
- 4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct (a). Statement 1 is right: under Rule 8 of the Lok Sabha's Rules of Procedure, the election of the Deputy Speaker is held on a date the Speaker fixes. Statement 2 is wrong: no rule ties the post to the opposition or the ruling party; giving it to the opposition is only a custom. Statement 3 is right: when presiding, the Deputy Speaker has the Speaker's full powers, and no appeal lies against his rulings. Statement 4 is wrong: the motion is moved by a member, not by the Speaker.
Notice that Article 93 says the Lok Sabha "shall" choose a Deputy Speaker, yet the post stayed vacant through the whole 17th Lok Sabha (2019–24). The Deputy Speaker sends any resignation to the Speaker.
"mandatory provision" for what is only a convention.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Judiciary 3
Consider the following statements :
- 1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
- 2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
- 3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
- 4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct (b). Statement 1 is right: the H.N. Sanyal Committee (1963) led to the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971. Statement 2 is right: Article 129 and Article 215 make the Supreme Court and the High Courts courts of record, with power to punish contempt of themselves. Statement 4 is right: Parliament can make laws on contempt, under Entry 77 of the Union List and Entry 14 of the Concurrent List. Statement 3 is wrong: civil and criminal contempt are defined in the 1971 Act, not in the Constitution.
Notice the 2006 amendment, which made truth a defence if in the public interest. Contempt of court is also a ground for restricting free speech under Article 19(2).
statement 3. The Constitution gives the power; the Act gives the definitions.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to India, consider the following statements :
- 1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
- 2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only statement 2 is correct (b). Statement 1 is wrong: under the Advocates Act, 1961, only individuals enrol as advocates, so a law firm is not an advocate. Also, corporate lawyers and patent attorneys who are enrolled are not excluded from being advocates. Statement 2 is right: under Section 7 of the Act, the Bar Council of India sets standards of legal education and recognises universities and law colleges whose degrees qualify a person to enrol.
Notice the structure: the Bar Council of India at the top and State Bar Councils below. Since 2010, new law graduates must pass the All India Bar Examination to practise. In 2023, the BCI allowed foreign law firms to practise non-litigation work in India.
one wrong word ("legal firms") inside a long statement that is otherwise plausible.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements :
- 1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
- 2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
- 3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
All three statements are correct (d). Statement 1 is right: mandamus commands a body to perform a public duty, so it does not lie against a private organisation unless that body has been given a public duty. Statement 2 is right per the key: in Praga Tools (1966), the Supreme Court held that mandamus does not lie against a company, even a government company, unless a public duty is involved. Statement 3 is right: for quo warranto, which asks "by what authority" someone holds a public office, the petitioner need not be personally affected; any member of the public can apply.
Notice the five writs: habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto, under Articles 32 and 226. High Courts can issue writs for any legal right.
statement 2 sounds wrong because a government company feels "public". UPSC followed the line in Praga Tools.
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Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Constitutional and statutory bodies, elections, amendments, rights and governance 2
Consider the following statements :
- 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
- 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
- 3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct (b). Statement 1 is wrong: under Article 368, a Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced in either House by a minister or a private member, without the President's prior recommendation. Statement 2 is right: since the 24th Amendment (1971), the President must give assent to an amendment Bill and cannot withhold it or return it. Statement 3 is right: each House must pass it separately by a special majority, and there is no joint sitting if they disagree.
Notice that amendments touching federal matters, such as the election of the President or the Seventh Schedule, also need ratification by half the State legislatures. The basic structure doctrine limits all amendments.
"prior recommendation" is needed for Money Bills and Bills on State boundaries (Article 3), not for amendments.
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Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
- 2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong: under Article 88, the right to speak in and take part in the proceedings of Parliament belongs to ministers and the Attorney General, not the Solicitor General. The AG cannot vote. Statement 2 is wrong: under Article 76, the Attorney General holds office during the pleasure of the President. Resigning when the government changes is a convention, not a rule in the Constitution.
Notice that the AG must be qualified to be a Supreme Court judge, is the government's chief legal adviser, and is not a member of the Cabinet. The Solicitor General and Additional Solicitors General are not constitutional posts. The State-level counterpart is the Advocate General (Article 165).
"only" plus the wrong officer. The Solicitor General is not a constitutional post.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
All years by topic
Every question from 2011 to 2026, grouped by syllabus topic, with year-wise trends.