UPSC Prelims 2024 Polity questions: topic-wise weightage
UPSC Prelims 2024 asked 18 polity questions in GS Paper I, spread over 6 topics. See the polity weightage for 2024 below, then attempt each question with the official answer and an explanation.
Polity 2024: questions by topic
- Making of the Constitution, Preamble, features and schedules3
- Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties1
- Parliament and state legislatures7
- Judiciary1
- Federalism, emergency provisions, local government2
- Constitutional and statutory bodies, elections, amendments, rights and governance4
Counted from the 18 questions on this page, tagged by topic in the Battle IAS PYQ bank.
Seeing 18 Polity questions spread over 6 topics can feel overwhelming. That's exactly why the Battle IAS PYQ Book maps every question topic by topic, so you know what to study first. Download free sample
Making of the Constitution, Preamble, features and schedules 3
Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over ?
Answer (d) & explanation
Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the Provisional President (d). At the first sitting of the Constituent Assembly on 9 December 1946, the oldest member, Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, was made temporary President, following the French practice. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected permanent President on 11 December 1946. Option (a) is wrong: C. Rajagopalachari was not its President. Option (b) is wrong: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee. Option (c) is wrong: T.T. Krishnamachari was a member of that committee.
Notice other key roles: H.C. Mukherjee was Vice-President, B.N. Rau the Constitutional Adviser, and Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution on 13 December 1946. The Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949.
famous names from the Assembly. Each had a different role, so tie the name to the post.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages ?
- 1. Konkani
- 2. Manipuri
- 3. Nepali
- 4. Maithili
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (a) & explanation
Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added in 1992 (a). The 71st Amendment (1992) added Konkani (item 1), Manipuri (item 2) and Nepali (item 3) to the Eighth Schedule, raising the count from 15 to 18. Item 4 is wrong: Maithili came in with the 92nd Amendment (2003), along with Bodo, Dogri and Santhali, raising the count to 22. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice an easy memory hook: 71 brought the "K-M-N" trio. The original Constitution had 14 languages; Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment (1967). Demands are pending for many more, such as Bhojpuri and Rajasthani. Classical language status is separate; Marathi, Bengali and others got it in 2024.
Maithili is a big, old language, so students assume it came early. It is one of the four added in 2003.
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Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India ?
- 1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
- 2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
- 3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
All three statements are correct (d). Statement 1 is right: Part IXA (Articles 243P to 243ZG), added by the 74th Amendment (1992), covers Municipalities. Statement 2 is right: Part XVIII (Articles 352 to 360) covers Emergency provisions. Statement 3 is right: Part XX has a single Article, 368, on amending the Constitution. So options (a), (b) and (c), which leave one out, are wrong.
Notice other key Parts: Part III for Fundamental Rights, Part IV for Directive Principles, Part IVA for Fundamental Duties, and Part IX for Panchayats (73rd Amendment). Part IXB covers cooperative societies (97th Amendment). Knowing the big Parts by number saves time in such questions.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties 1
Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy ?
Answer (d) & explanation
The Supreme Court placed the Right to Privacy under Article 21 (d). In Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), a nine-judge Bench held that privacy is part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21, and also flows from the freedoms in Part III. It overruled the older M.P. Sharma (1954) and Kharak Singh (1962) rulings. Option (a) is wrong: Article 15 bans discrimination. Option (b) is wrong: Article 16 gives equal opportunity in public jobs. Option (c) is wrong: Article 19 lists six freedoms, such as speech.
Notice that most new rights, such as food, shelter, livelihood and a clean environment, came through Article 21. Parliament later passed the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Parliament and state legislatures 7
Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament ?
- 1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
- 2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
- 3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
- 4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct (c). Statement 1 is right: Article 109 sets the special procedure for Money Bills. Statement 2 is right: a Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha, never in the Council of States, and only on the President's recommendation. Statement 3 is right: the Rajya Sabha must return it within 14 days, with or without recommendations, and cannot reject it. Statement 4 is wrong: the Lok Sabha is free to accept or reject those recommendations.
Notice that Article 110 defines a Money Bill, and the Speaker's certificate is final. The Supreme Court is examining the use of the Money Bill route for laws like Aadhaar. A joint sitting is not possible on a Money Bill.
"suggest" in statement 3 and "have to be accepted" in statement 4. The Rajya Sabha recommends; the Lok Sabha decides.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct ?
- 1. Initially it was an *ad-hoc* Committee.
- 2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
- 3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct (c). Statement 1 is right: the Lok Sabha Ethics Committee began as an ad hoc committee in 2000 and became permanent in 2015. Statement 3 is right: it does not take up matters that are sub judice, meaning before a court. Statement 2 is wrong: any person can complain, through a member of the Lok Sabha; members can complain directly. So "only a Member" is wrong, and options (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice the related case: in 2023, the committee recommended expelling Mahua Moitra in the "cash-for-query" case. The Rajya Sabha set up its own Ethics Committee earlier, in 1997. Both work with the Privileges Committee on member conduct.
"only". Here the outsider can complain too, just through an MP.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam' :
- 1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
- 2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
- 3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct (c). The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam is the 106th Amendment (2023). It reserves one-third of seats for women in the Lok Sabha, State Assemblies and the Delhi Assembly. Statement 2 is right: it runs for 15 years, which Parliament can extend. Statement 3 is right: one-third of SC and ST seats go to women from those groups. Statement 1 is wrong: it starts only after delimitation based on the first Census after the Act, not from the 18th Lok Sabha.
Notice the gap: there is no separate quota for OBC women, a point of debate. Women have had one-third reservation in panchayats and municipalities since the 73rd and 74th Amendments (1992). Census 2027 work is now under way.
a date that sounds right. The trigger is delimitation, not a numbered Lok Sabha.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements :
- 1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
- 2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (c) & explanation
Both statements are treated as correct (c). Statement 1: Article 112 makes the President cause the Annual Financial Statement (the Budget) to be laid before both Houses. In practice the Finance Minister presents it for the Council of Ministers, which the Prime Minister heads; UPSC read statement 1 in that sense. Statement 2 is right: Article 113(3) says no demand for a grant can be made except on the President's recommendation. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail under UPSC's key.
Notice that the word "Budget" is not used in the Constitution. Since 2017, the Budget is presented on 1 February, and the Railway Budget is merged into it. Article 114 covers the Appropriation Bill.
a statement that sounds loose can still be accepted. Read it the way a working government reads it, not word by word.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :
While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration
- 1. He/She shall not preside.
- 2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
- 3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (a) & explanation
Only statement 1 is correct (a). Article 96 settles this. Statement 1 is right: the Speaker shall not preside while a resolution for their removal is being considered. Statement 2 is wrong: the Speaker may speak and take part in the proceedings. Statement 3 is wrong: the Speaker may vote in the first instance, though not when votes are equal. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the related rules: the Speaker is removed by a resolution passed by an effective majority of the Lok Sabha, after 14 days' notice (Article 94). Normally the Speaker has only a casting vote in a tie. The same rules apply to the Deputy Speaker, and to the Rajya Sabha's chairman under Article 92.
it feels fair that the Speaker should be silent. The Constitution lets the Speaker defend herself and vote as a member.
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Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements :
- 1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
- 2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
- 3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (b). Statement 1 is right: when the Lok Sabha is dissolved, Bills pending in it lapse. Statement 2 is right: Bills passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha also lapse. Statement 3 is wrong: a Bill for which the President has already notified a joint sitting does not lapse, under Article 108(5). So options (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice what survives dissolution: a Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha that the Lok Sabha has not passed, and Bills passed by both Houses awaiting assent. Only three joint sittings have been held: Dowry Prohibition (1961), Banking Service Commission (1978) and POTA (2002).
a Bill pending only in the Rajya Sabha (never passed by the Lok Sabha) does not lapse. UPSC can flip to that case.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements :
- 1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
- 2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned *sine die* but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
- 3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct (c). Statement 2 is right: prorogation normally follows adjournment sine die (without a fixed date), but nothing stops a House from being prorogued while sitting. Statement 3 is right: the President dissolves the Lok Sabha on the advice of the Council of Ministers, except in rare cases, such as when a government has lost its majority. Statement 1 is wrong: prorogation under Article 85 is done on ministerial advice, like the President's other powers.
Notice the differences: adjournment pauses a sitting and is done by the Speaker or Chairman; prorogation ends a session; dissolution ends the Lok Sabha itself. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent House and is never dissolved.
"does not require advice". Article 74 binds the President across almost every power.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Judiciary 1
A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to :
Answer (c) & explanation
Prohibition stops a lower court from continuing a case (c). A writ of Prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal, telling it to stop a case it has no jurisdiction to hear. It is issued only to judicial and quasi-judicial bodies. Option (a) is wrong: it is never issued to a government officer. Options (b) and (d) are wrong: courts cannot use it against Parliament, a legislature or the government's policy.
Notice the five writs under Articles 32 and 226: Habeas Corpus (produce the person), Mandamus ("we command", to perform a duty), Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo Warranto (by what authority). Think of Prohibition as "stop before you decide", and Certiorari as "your decision is quashed".
option (a) describes mandamus in reverse. Prohibition is aimed at courts, not officers.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Federalism, emergency provisions, local government 2
The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members ?
- 1. Governor of the Constituent State
- 2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
- 3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
- 4. The Home Minister of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (a) & explanation
Items 1, 2 and 3 are the members (a). After the 2002 amendment, the North Eastern Council Act makes the Council of the Governors and Chief Ministers of the north-eastern States (item 1 and 2), plus three members nominated by the President (item 3). The amendment also brought Sikkim in, making eight States, and turned the NEC into a regional planning body. Item 4 is wrong: the Union Home Minister is not one of the members named in the Act, so options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the later change: in 2018, the Union Cabinet made the Home Minister the ex-officio Chairman and the DoNER minister Vice-Chairman, by executive decision. That is why the question says "according to the Act". The NEC is based in Shillong.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India ?
Answer (c) & explanation
Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject (c). Inter-State migration and inter-State quarantine are together in Entry 81 of the Union List. Option (a) is wrong: inter-State trade and commerce is a Union subject (Entry 42); only trade within a State is a State subject. Option (b) is wrong: inter-State migration sits with the Union, as above. Option (d) is wrong: corporation tax is a Union subject (Entry 85).
Notice the simple rule: anything "inter-State" usually belongs to the Union. The Seventh Schedule has three lists: Union, State and Concurrent. Public health is a State subject, so in COVID-19 the Centre used the Disaster Management Act and the Epidemic Diseases Act.
"trade and commerce" appears in both lists. The word "inter-State" decides it.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Constitutional and statutory bodies, elections, amendments, rights and governance 4
As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of :
- 1. Addition
- 2. Variation
- 3. Repeal
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
All three are correct (d). Article 368(1) says Parliament may, in exercise of its constituent power, amend "by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of this Constitution". All three words are in the text, so options (a), (b) and (c), which each leave one out, are wrong. The Basic Structure doctrine, from Kesavananda Bharati (1973), limits what can be changed, not these methods.
Notice the three ways to amend: a simple majority (for things like creating new states, not counted as Article 368 amendments), a special majority of each House, and a special majority plus ratification by half the state legislatures for federal matters. The 24th Amendment (1971) added the words "constituent power".
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023 ?
Answer (d) & explanation
Four Delimitation Commissions have been set up (d). Delimitation Commissions were constituted under Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002, so options (a), (b) and (c) are too low. The last one, under Justice Kuldip Singh, redrew constituency boundaries using the 2001 Census, but kept the number of seats in the Lok Sabha and the assemblies frozen, based on the 1971 Census. Its orders cannot be challenged in any court.
Notice the link to Article 82 and Article 170, which require readjustment after each census. The 84th Amendment extended the freeze on seat numbers until the first census after 2026. A separate commission for Jammu and Kashmir (2020–22) also redrew that Union Territory's seats.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following pairs :
| Party | Its Leader
| 1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh | Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
| 2. Socialist Party | C. Rajagopalachari
| 3. Congress for Democracy | Jagjivan Ram
| 4. Swatantra Party | Acharya Narendra Dev
How many of the above are correctly matched ?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only two pairs are correctly matched (b). Pair 1 is right: Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee founded the Bharatiya Jana Sangh in 1951. Pair 3 is right: Jagjivan Ram formed the Congress for Democracy in 1977, leaving Indira Gandhi's Congress after the Emergency. Pairs 2 and 4 are swapped: C. Rajagopalachari founded the Swatantra Party (1959), a pro-market party, while Acharya Narendra Dev was a leader of the Socialist Party, with Jayaprakash Narayan.
Notice what happened next: the Jana Sangh and the Congress for Democracy joined the Janata Party, which won the 1977 election under Morarji Desai. The BJP grew out of the Jana Sangh in 1980.
a swap between two pairs. Fix the one you are sure of, and the swap shows itself.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
- 2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only statement 2 is correct (b). Statement 2 is right: the Scheduled Tribe list is State-wise, so a community can be an ST in one State and not in another. Statement 1 is wrong: under Article 342, it is the President who notifies Scheduled Tribes for each State, after consulting the Governor. Only Parliament can later add to or remove from the list, by law. So options (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the matching rule for Scheduled Castes under Article 341. The Lokur Committee (1965) gave the usual tests for STs: primitive traits, distinct culture, geographical isolation, shyness of contact and backwardness. The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes sits under Article 338A.
the Governor is consulted, so students think he declares. The notification is the President's.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
All years by topic
Every question from 2011 to 2026, grouped by syllabus topic, with year-wise trends.