UPSC Prelims 2025 Polity questions: topic-wise weightage
UPSC Prelims 2025 asked 15 polity questions in GS Paper I, spread over 6 topics. See the polity weightage for 2025 below, then attempt each question with the official answer and an explanation.
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Polity 2025: questions by topic
- Making of the Constitution, Preamble, features and schedules1
- Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties1
- Union and state executive4
- Parliament and state legislatures2
- Federalism, emergency provisions, local government4
- Constitutional and statutory bodies, elections, amendments, rights and governance3
Counted from the 15 questions on this page, tagged by topic in the Battle IAS PYQ bank.
Seeing 15 Polity questions spread over 6 topics can feel overwhelming. That's exactly why the Battle IAS PYQ Book maps every question topic by topic, so you know what to study first. Download free sample
Making of the Constitution, Preamble, features and schedules 1
Consider the following statements :
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule
- I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration
- II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement I is wrong: under the Fifth Schedule, the State's executive power still covers Scheduled Areas. No local body takes over total administration. What changes is that the Governor reports to the President, can modify laws for these areas, and a Tribes Advisory Council advises. Statement II is wrong: the Union can give the State directions on how to run these areas, but nothing lets it take over the administration. So options (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Notice the Sixth Schedule, for tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram, which does create Autonomous District Councils with law-making powers. PESA, 1996 extends panchayats to Fifth Schedule areas with strong gram sabha powers.
"directions" stretched into "take over". Strong verbs usually signal a wrong statement in this topic.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties 1
Consider the following pairs :
| Provision in the Constitution of India | Stated under
| I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State | The Directive Principles of State Policy
| II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture | The Fundamental Duties
| III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories | The Fundamental Rights
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Answer (c) & explanation
All three pairs are correctly matched (c). Pair I is right: separation of the judiciary from the executive is Article 50, a Directive Principle. Pair II is right: valuing and preserving our composite culture is Article 51A(f), a Fundamental Duty. Pair III is right: no child below 14 may work in factories, mines or hazardous work under Article 24, a Fundamental Right. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice related provisions: Article 21A gives free education for ages 6–14 (86th Amendment, 2002), and Article 51A(k) asks parents to educate their children. The Child Labour Amendment Act, 2016 banned all child labour below 14. Article 39(e) and (f) protect children too.
Article 45 (early childhood care, a DPSP) and Article 24 (a Fundamental Right) both talk about children. Keep them apart.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Union and state executive 4
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements :
- I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
- II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
- III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements I and III are correct (c). An Ordinance under Article 123 has the same force as an Act of Parliament. Statement I is right: so it can amend any Central Act. Statement III is right: like an Act, it can be made retrospective, taking effect from a back date. Statement II is wrong: Article 13 counts an Ordinance as "law", and no law can take away or abridge Fundamental Rights. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice the limits: an Ordinance can be issued only when Parliament is not in session, and it lapses six weeks after Parliament reassembles unless approved. In Krishna Kumar Singh (2017), the Supreme Court held that re-promulgating Ordinances again and again is a fraud on the Constitution. Governors have the same power under Article 213.
"same force as an Act" makes students think an Ordinance can do anything. It carries the same limits too.
Traps like this come back in new clothes. The PYQ Book collects all of them, topic by topic, so none catch you twice. Try the free sample
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
- II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Only statement I is correct (a). Statement I is right: Article 163(1) itself says the Governor acts on ministers' advice "except in so far as he is by or under this Constitution required to exercise his functions… in his discretion". Examples include Article 371 duties and the Sixth Schedule. Statement II is wrong: under Article 200, only the Governor can reserve a State Bill for the President. The President cannot pull a Bill up on their own. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the recent fights over Governors sitting on Bills. In State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor (April 2025), the Supreme Court set time limits for assent. On a Presidential reference, a Constitution Bench in November 2025 said courts cannot fix such deadlines, but long, unexplained delay can still be reviewed.
the President is "higher", so students assume he can act directly on State Bills. The route always runs through the Governor.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements :
- I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
- II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
- III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
All three statements are correct (d). Statement I is right: Article 361 says the President and Governors are not answerable to any court for official acts. Statement II is right: under the same Article, no criminal case can be started or continued against them during their term. Statement III is right: Article 194(2) gives State legislators freedom of speech in the House, just as Article 105 does for MPs. So options (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Notice the limit on legislators: in Sita Soren (2024), a seven-judge Bench held that MPs and MLAs who take bribes to vote or speak get no immunity, overruling P.V. Narasimha Rao (1998). Civil cases against a Governor need two months' notice.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India :
- I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
- II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Only statement I is correct (a). Statement I is right: the Supreme Court has held that a pardon under Article 72 can be reviewed on narrow grounds, such as bad faith, irrelevant reasons or arbitrariness (Epuru Sudhakar, 2006). Statement II is wrong: the Court has held that the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers here, as elsewhere (Maru Ram, 1980). So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the forms of mercy: pardon (wipes out the sentence), commutation (lighter form), remission (shorter term), respite (lighter due to special facts) and reprieve (stay). Only the President can pardon a death sentence or court-martial sentence; Governors' powers under Article 161 are narrower.
the pardon feels like a personal power of the President. It is exercised on ministerial advice.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Parliament and state legislatures 2
Consider the following statements :
- I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
- II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
- III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements I and III are correct (c). Statement I is right: under Article 94, on dissolution of the Lok Sabha the Speaker stays in office until just before the first meeting of the new House. Statement III is right: the Speaker may be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members, after at least 14 days' notice. Both lines are copied almost word for word from Article 94. Statement II is wrong: nothing in the Constitution asks the Speaker to leave the party.
Notice that resigning from the party is a convention in Britain, not a rule in India. The Speaker decides defection cases under the Tenth Schedule and certifies Money Bills. The Deputy Speaker post stayed vacant for the whole 17th Lok Sabha.
a good practice dressed as a constitutional rule. Ask, "Which Article says this?"
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Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
- II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement I is wrong: under the Tenth Schedule, the Speaker or Chairman decides defection cases, subject to judicial review (Kihoto Hollohan, 1992). The President decides other disqualifications under Article 103, and then on the Election Commission's opinion, not the Cabinet's. Statement II is wrong: "political party" appears many times in the Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment in 1985. So options (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Notice the later change: the 91st Amendment (2003) removed the "split" exception (one-third), leaving only mergers backed by two-thirds of members. Courts have asked Speakers to decide defection petitions within a reasonable time, ideally three months.
two different routes mixed up: Article 103 (President, on EC's opinion) and the Tenth Schedule (presiding officer).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Federalism, emergency provisions, local government 4
Consider the following pairs :
| State | Description
| I. Arunachal Pradesh | The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
| II. Nagaland | The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
| III. Tripura | Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Answer (c) & explanation
All three pairs are treated as correctly matched (c). Pair I is right: Itanagar takes its name from the Ita Fort, and Arunachal has two national parks, Namdapha and Mouling. Pair II is right: Nagaland was created in 1963 by the State of Nagaland Act, 1962, together with the 13th Amendment (1962), which added Article 371A. Pair III is right: Tripura went from a Part C State to a Union Territory in 1956, and became a full State in 1972. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice that Manipur and Meghalaya also became States in 1972, under the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971. Arunachal and Mizoram became States in 1987. Article 371A protects Naga customary law and land.
three different kinds of fact in one question: a name, a law, a change of status. Check each pair on its own.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to India, consider the following :
- I. The Inter-State Council
- II. The National Security Council
- III. Zonal Councils
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
Answer (a) & explanation
Only one was set up under the Constitution (a). Item I is right: the Inter-State Council rests on Article 263, which lets the President set it up; it was formed in 1990, after the Sarkaria Commission advised it. Item III is wrong: Zonal Councils come from the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, an ordinary law, so they are statutory. Item II is wrong: the National Security Council (1998) was set up by an executive decision. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the pattern UPSC tests: constitutional bodies (Finance Commission, Election Commission, CAG), statutory bodies (NHRC, Zonal Councils) and executive bodies (NITI Aayog, NSC). The Union Home Minister chairs all five Zonal Councils. The North Eastern Council is a separate statutory body.
"council" in all three names. Ask where each one's power comes from: Constitution, Act or government order.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
Statement I :
- In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II :
- In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer (d) & explanation
Statement I is wrong, Statement II is right (d). Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, Statement II is right: the Centre decides which minerals count as "minor" (Section 3(e)). Statement I is wrong: the States make the rules for granting minor mineral concessions (Section 15), and they keep the royalty. So options (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Notice examples of minor minerals: sand, gravel, building stone, marble and brick earth. Illegal sand mining is a big problem that States must police. Major minerals, such as coal, iron ore and bauxite, are regulated mostly by the Centre. In 2024, the Supreme Court held that States can tax mineral-bearing land.
in a Statement I/II question, check each statement alone first. Only then ask whether one explains the other.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
- II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
- III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
All three statements are not correct (d). Statement I is wrong: Article 243B lets States with a population under 20 lakh skip the intermediate level, so it does not exist in all States. Statement II is wrong: the minimum age is 21, not 30 (Article 243F). Statement III is wrong: the State Finance Commission is set up by the Governor under Article 243I, not the Chief Minister, and it reviews all panchayats. So all three are not correct.
Notice the trap: the question asks which are not correct. Other 73rd Amendment (1992) features: a State Election Commission (Article 243K), one-third seats for women (many States give 50%), and the Eleventh Schedule with 29 subjects.
the question asks for statements that are not correct. Circle "not" before you start.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Constitutional and statutory bodies, elections, amendments, rights and governance 3
With reference to India, consider the following pairs :
| Organization | Union Ministry
| I. The National Automotive Board | Ministry of Commerce and Industry
| II. The Coir Board | Ministry of Heavy Industries
| III. The National Centre for Trade Information | Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Answer (d) & explanation
None of the pairs is correctly matched (d). UPSC has rotated the ministries one step. Pair I is wrong: the National Automotive Board is under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, not Commerce. Pair II is wrong: the Coir Board is under the Ministry of MSME, not Heavy Industries. Pair III is wrong: the National Centre for Trade Information was set up by the Commerce Ministry, not MSME. Every pair is off by one, so options (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Notice the Coir Board's base: Kochi, Kerala, the heart of India's coir industry, which uses coconut husk fibre. The Khadi and Village Industries Commission is also under MSME. Spotting a "rotation" trick helps: if one pair is swapped, check the others.
rotated pairs. If you know just two of them, the third is often the leftover answer.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India :
- I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
- II. Extent of the executive power of a State
- III. Conditions of the Governor's office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
Answer (a) & explanation
Items I and II need ratification by half the States (a). The proviso to Article 368(2) lists the federal subjects that need ratification by half the State legislatures. Item I is right: it includes any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule. Item II is right: it includes Article 162, on the extent of a State's executive power. Item III is wrong: the Governor's conditions of office (Article 158) are not on that list, so Parliament alone can amend them. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice other items needing ratification: election of the President (Articles 54, 55), the Supreme Court and High Courts, representation of States in Parliament, and Article 368 itself. The GST (101st Amendment) needed ratification because it changed the Lists.
the Governor feels "federal", but Article 158 is not in the ratification list.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements about Lokpal :
- I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
- II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
- III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
- IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Only statement III is correct (a). Statement III is right: the Chairperson or a Member must be at least 45 years old on taking office. Statement I is wrong: the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 covers public servants in India and abroad. Statement II is wrong: the Chairperson can be a former Chief Justice, a former Supreme Court judge, or an eminent person, so "only the CJI" is wrong. Statement IV is wrong: the Prime Minister is covered, with special safeguards, such as nothing on national security or foreign relations.
Notice the structure: a Chairperson and up to eight members, half of them judicial, and half from SC, ST, OBC, minorities and women. Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose was the first Lokpal (2019).
"only" and "cannot". Absolute words in a Lokpal question are usually wrong.
One trap spotted is one mark saved. The PYQ Book lines up every trap UPSC has set, so you walk in prepared. Try the free sample
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
All years by topic
Every question from 2011 to 2026, grouped by syllabus topic, with year-wise trends.