Chapter 6 · Topic 6.2 · Prelims + Mains2 of 5
Fundamental Rights: Equality, Art 19 and Arts 20–24
Key points
- Art 12 "State" includes bodies under deep government control; some rights (Arts 17, 23, 24) bind private persons too.
- Art 14 = no arbitrariness + reasonable classification; Arts 15–16 allow special provisions and reservation; Art 17 abolishes untouchability; Art 18 abolishes titles.
- Art 19: six freedoms, each with its own list of grounds for restriction in 19(2)–(6).
- Arts 20–24: protections for the accused, the arrested and workers; Arts 20 and 21 can never be suspended.
9 PYQs 2017–2026
Prelims box: facts and traps
- Prelims 2021: unguided, uncontrolled discretion violates Art 14 (a). Bharat Ratna and Padma awards are not titles (all three statements wrong, d).
- Prelims 2023: Art 335 does not define "efficiency of administration" (c). Untouchability falls under Right to Equality (Prelims 2020, d).
- Prelims 2017: Right against Exploitation = trafficking/forced labour + child labour (c).
- Art 22 safeguards do not apply to enemy aliens or preventive detainees.
On this page (3 sections)
Right to Equality (Arts 14–18)
Think of cricket: same rules for both teams (equality), freedom to choose your shots, and no one given out without a fair appeal.
Art 14 joins two ideas.
- Equality before law (from Britain) is negative: no one is above the law.
- Equal protection of laws (from the US) is positive: treat equals alike.
That second idea allows reasonable classification, as long as there is an intelligible differentia (a real difference between groups) with a rational nexus (a sensible link) to the law’s purpose. Example: a lower bus fare for senior citizens is fine, because age is a real difference linked to the goal of helping the elderly. In E.P. Royappa (1974) the Court added that arbitrariness is itself the opposite of equality, so a law that hands officials unguided and uncontrolled discretion fails Art 14.
Analyze the distinguishing features of the notion of Right to Equality in the Constitutions of the USA and India.
A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
- Article 14
- Article 28
- Article 32
- Article 44
Show answer
Answer: (a) · UPSC official key
| Article | What it does | Key point |
|---|---|---|
| 15 | No discrimination by the State on religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth | 15(3) special provisions for women and children; 15(4) for socially and educationally backward classes, SCs and STs (added by the 1st Amendment after Champakam Dorairajan, 1951); 15(5) admissions, including in private institutions (93rd); 15(6) EWS (103rd) |
| 16 | Equality of opportunity in public employment | 16(4) backward-class reservation; 16(4A) promotion for SC/ST (77th); 16(4B) carry-forward of unfilled posts (81st); 16(6) EWS up to 10%. Reservation is read with Art 335 (efficiency of administration), a phrase the Constitution does not define |
| 17 | Abolishes untouchability, in any form | Not defined in the Constitution; enforced through the Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955; binds private persons too |
| 18 | Abolishes titles | Military and academic distinctions are allowed. Balaji Raghavan (1995): Bharat Ratna and the Padma awards are not “titles” |
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
Statement-II :
Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (c) · UPSC official key
Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?
- Right against Exploitation
- Right to Freedom
- Right to Constitutional Remedies
- Right to Equality
Show answer
Answer: (d) · UPSC official key
Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards : 1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. 2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. 3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements are not correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (d) · UPSC official key
Indra Sawhney v Union of India 1992
Held: Upheld 27% OBC reservation, but excluded the creamy layer and set a 50% ceiling except in extraordinary situations. Held that reservation in promotions was not allowed under Art 16(4). Why it matters: set the basic framework for reservation; Parliament responded with Art 16(4A).
The creamy layer means the better-off members of a backward class, who are left out so benefits reach those who need them.
Janhit Abhiyan v Union of India 2022
Held: Upheld the 103rd Amendment (10% EWS quota) by 3:2. Why it matters: economic criteria alone can support reservation; the 50% ceiling does not bind this separate class.
Article 19: six freedoms, each with a leash
Art 19(1) gives citizens six freedoms. Clauses 19(2)–(6) say on what grounds the State may put reasonable restrictions on each one. Every freedom has its own list of grounds, and the State cannot invent new ones.
| Freedom | Article | Restriction grounds |
|---|---|---|
| Speech and expression (press, silence, information, broadcasting are read in) | 19(1)(a); 19(2) | Sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, contempt of court, defamation, incitement to an offence |
| Assemble peaceably and without arms | 19(1)(b); 19(3) | Sovereignty and integrity, public order |
| Form associations, unions, co-operative societies | 19(1)(c); 19(4) | Sovereignty and integrity, public order, morality (co-operatives added by the 97th Amendment, 2011) |
| Move freely throughout India | 19(1)(d); 19(5) | Interests of the general public, protection of Scheduled Tribes |
| Reside and settle anywhere | 19(1)(e); 19(5) | As for movement |
| Practise any profession, trade, business | 19(1)(g); 19(6) | Interests of the general public, professional qualifications, State trade or monopoly |
Memory hook, six freedoms: Speech · Assembly · Association · Movement · Residence · Profession = “Some Ants And Mice Rarely Panic”.
A brief history. In Romesh Thappar (1950) the Court said a ban on a journal for “public safety” went beyond Art 19(2) as it then stood. Within a year, the 1st Amendment (1951) added public order, friendly relations with foreign States and incitement, and put the word “reasonable” before restrictions. The 16th Amendment (1963) added sovereignty and integrity.
Shreya Singhal v Union of India 2015
Held: Struck down Section 66A of the IT Act for being vague and going beyond Art 19(2). Why it matters: restrictions must be narrow and tied to the listed grounds; offensive or annoying speech is not enough.
Discuss Section 66A of IT Act, with reference to its alleged violation of Article 19 of the Constitution.
Anuradha Bhasin v Union of India 2020
Held: Freedom of speech and of trade over the internet is protected; an internet suspension must be necessary, proportionate, and published so that it can be reviewed. Why it matters: the proportionality test applied to shutdowns.
Proportionality means the restriction must be no bigger than needed.
Arts 20–24: guards around life, liberty and labour
These protect you as an accused, a detainee or a worker.
- Ex post facto law means a law that punishes an act done before the law was made.
- Double jeopardy means being tried and punished twice for the same offence.
- Preventive detention means holding someone to stop a possible future crime, not to punish a past one.
| Article | Protection | Remember |
|---|---|---|
| 20(1) | No ex post facto criminal law: no conviction or heavier penalty under a law made later | Covers criminal laws only, not civil or tax laws |
| 20(2) | No double jeopardy | Applies only to prosecution and punishment by a court; departmental action can still follow |
| 20(3) | No compulsion to be a witness against oneself | Selvi (2010): involuntary narco-analysis, polygraph and brain-mapping tests violate it |
| 21A | Free and compulsory education, ages 6–14 | Added by the 86th Amendment (2002); RTE Act 2009 |
| 22(1)–(2) | Arrested person: told the grounds, may consult a lawyer, produced before a magistrate within 24 hours | Not available to enemy aliens or preventive detainees |
| 22(4)–(7) | Preventive detention: no more than 3 months unless an Advisory Board finds cause; grounds communicated | India is unusual in allowing this in peacetime |
| 23 | Bans human trafficking, begar and forced labour | Binds private persons too. PUDR (1982): paying below minimum wage is forced labour |
| 24 | No child under 14 in factories, mines or hazardous work | Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act |
Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour 2. Abolition of untouchability 3. Protection of the interests of minorities 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- 1, 2 and 4 only
- 2, 3 and 4 only
- 1 and 4 only
- 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (c) · UPSC official key
Consider the following statements : 1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances. 2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention. 3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence. How many of the above statements are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) · UPSC official key
Common trap: Art 20 and Art 21 can never be suspended, not even during a National Emergency (44th Amendment). Art 22 can be.
What UPSC asks: untouchability, titles, Art 335, the arbitrariness test, Art 19 grounds, Shreya Singhal and 66A, Art 22 safeguards and Art 23 trafficking. Next likely angle: SC sub-classification (2024), the 50% ceiling after EWS, internet shutdowns, narco tests under Art 20(3), and child labour under Art 24.
Mains box: analysis and answer points
- Equality in the USA vs India (2021).
- Section 66A and Art 19 (2013); internet shutdowns and proportionality.
- Preventive detention and civil liberty.
Practice
Practice MCQs (8)
The guarantee of equality of opportunity under Article 16 of the Constitution of India applies to
Answer (d) & explanation
Article 16(1) guarantees equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State. Its reach follows the Article 12 meaning of 'State': the Union, the States, local authorities and bodies such as public sector undertakings that are government instrumentalities. It does not extend to private employment; private employers are regulated by statutes such as the labour codes, not by Article 16 itself. It is also available only to citizens, unlike Article 14. Attempts to reserve private jobs have come from State laws, not Article 16: the Punjab and Haryana High Court in November 2023 struck down Haryana's 2020 law reserving 75% of private-sector jobs for local residents. By contrast, Article 15(5) does reach private educational institutions, but only for admissions.
Consider the following statements about Article 14 of the Constitution of India:
1. The concept of 'equality before law' is of British origin, while 'equal protection of the laws' is taken from the American Constitution.
2. Article 14 is available only to citizens of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Statement 1 is correct: 'equality before law' is of British origin (Dicey's rule of law) and is a negative concept, meaning no special privileges for anyone and equal subjection of all to the ordinary law. 'Equal protection of the laws' comes from the 14th Amendment of the American Constitution and is a positive concept, meaning equal treatment in equal circumstances, which permits reasonable classification. Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 14 says the State shall not deny to 'any person' equality before the law or equal protection of the laws within the territory of India, so foreigners and legal persons such as companies are also protected. Because Article 14 speaks of 'any person', it protects citizens and foreigners, and natural as well as legal persons such as companies and statutory corporations.
Consider the following statements:
1. 'Begar', that is, compulsory work without payment, is prohibited by Article 23.
2. The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976 is one of the laws made to give effect to Article 23.
3. The Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 is one of the laws made to give effect to Article 23.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
All three are correct. Article 23(1) prohibits traffic in human beings, begar and other similar forms of forced labour, and makes any contravention an offence punishable by law; Article 23(2) allows compulsory service for public purposes, such as military or social service, without discrimination on religion, race, caste or class. To give effect to Article 23, Parliament enacted the Suppression of Immoral Traffic Act, 1956, renamed the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act in 1986, and the Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976, among others. In PUDR v. Union of India (1982), the Court held that paying less than the minimum wage can amount to forced labour. Parliament also enacted the Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976 under Article 23. The 1956 trafficking law was renamed the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act in 1986.
Which one of the following is NOT an exception to the rule of equality before law recognised under the Constitution of India?
Answer (d) & explanation
The recognised exceptions to equality before law include Article 361: the President and Governors are not answerable to any court for the exercise of their powers, no criminal proceedings lie against them during their term, and they cannot be arrested. Article 105(2) and Article 194(2) protect MPs and MLAs from court proceedings for anything said or any vote given in the House. Foreign sovereigns and ambassadors enjoy immunity under international law. Ministers have no such immunity: they can be prosecuted like any other person, subject only to sanction requirements under ordinary law such as the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. Under Article 361(4), civil proceedings against the President or a Governor for personal acts can begin only after two months' written notice. Article 361A protects the publication of true reports of legislative proceedings.
With reference to Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997), consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court relied on international conventions, including CEDAW, to frame guidelines against sexual harassment of women at the workplace.
2. The guidelines were later replaced by a law of Parliament enacted in 2013.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Both statements are correct. In Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997), a PIL filed after the gang rape of a social worker in Rajasthan, the Supreme Court found no domestic law on sexual harassment at the workplace. It read Articles 14, 15, 19(1)(g) and 21 with the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women (CEDAW), which India had ratified, and laid down binding guidelines, including complaints committees headed by a woman, under Article 32 read with Article 141. The guidelines held the field until Parliament enacted the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013, which requires Internal and Local Committees. The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013 requires an Internal Committee in every workplace with ten or more employees and a Local Committee at the district level for others.
Article 14 permits the State to classify persons for legitimate purposes. Such a classification is valid if
Answer (b) & explanation
Article 14 forbids class legislation but permits reasonable classification. From Chiranjit Lal (1950) and State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar (1952) onwards, the courts apply a two-part test: the classification must rest on an intelligible differentia that separates those grouped together from those left out, and the differentia must have a rational nexus with the object of the law. Later, E.P. Royappa (1974) and Maneka Gandhi (1978) added that arbitrariness is itself a denial of equality. No special majority, citizenship limit or executive form is part of the test. Royappa's view that arbitrariness is the antithesis of equality was later used in Shayara Bano (2017) and Joseph Shine (2018) to strike down laws as 'manifestly arbitrary'.
With reference to the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, as amended in 2016, consider the following statements:
1. It prohibits the employment of children below fourteen years in all occupations and processes, subject to limited exceptions such as helping the family after school hours.
2. It completely prohibits the employment of adolescents aged fourteen to eighteen years in all occupations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the 2016 amendment, which renamed the law the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, extended the ban on employing children below fourteen to all occupations and processes. The exceptions are helping the family or a family enterprise after school hours or during vacations, in non-hazardous work, and working as an artist in the audio-visual entertainment industry or sports (other than circus), without affecting schooling. Statement 2 is incorrect: adolescents aged fourteen to eighteen are barred only from hazardous occupations and processes listed in the Schedule, such as mines and inflammable substances, not from all work. Adolescents are persons aged fourteen to eighteen; for them only hazardous occupations are banned.
With reference to Article 23 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. The prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour protects individuals not only against the State but also against private persons.
2. While imposing compulsory service for public purposes, the State shall not make any discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or class.
3. The Supreme Court has held that paying a worker less than the minimum wage can amount to 'forced labour' under Article 23.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Article 23 is one of the few Fundamental Rights enforceable against private persons as well as the State. Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 23(2) allows compulsory service for public purposes (such as military or social service) and bars discrimination on grounds only of 'religion, race, caste or class or any of them'. 'Sex' is not in this list, unlike Article 15. Statement 3 is correct: in People's Union for Democratic Rights v. Union of India (Asiad Workers' case, 1982) the Court held that labour given for less than the minimum wage is 'forced labour'. Hence 1 and 3 only.
0 / 0 correct
Prelims PYQs on this topic (8)
Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?
Answer (d) & explanation
Protection against untouchability falls under the Right to Equality (d). Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form. Enforcing any disability arising from it is a punishable offence. It sits in the Right to Equality group, Articles 14 to 18, along with equality before law (14), no discrimination (15), equal opportunity in jobs (16) and abolition of titles (18). The Right against Exploitation (a) covers trafficking, forced labour and child labour (Articles 23–24). The Right to Freedom (b) covers Articles 19–22. Constitutional Remedies (c) is Article 32.
Article 17 is one of the few rights enforceable even against private persons. Notice the laws under it: the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 and the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989.
untouchability "feels" like exploitation (Articles 23-24), but it is placed with equality.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements :
- I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
- II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
- III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements I and III are correct (c). An Ordinance under Article 123 has the same force as an Act of Parliament. Statement I is right: so it can amend any Central Act. Statement III is right: like an Act, it can be made retrospective, taking effect from a back date. Statement II is wrong: Article 13 counts an Ordinance as "law", and no law can take away or abridge Fundamental Rights. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice the limits: an Ordinance can be issued only when Parliament is not in session, and it lapses six weeks after Parliament reassembles unless approved. In Krishna Kumar Singh (2017), the Supreme Court held that re-promulgating Ordinances again and again is a fraud on the Constitution. Governors have the same power under Article 213.
"same force as an Act" makes students think an Ordinance can do anything. It carries the same limits too.
Traps like this come back in new clothes. The PYQ Book collects all of them, topic by topic, so none catch you twice. Try the free sample
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following pairs :
| Provision in the Constitution of India | Stated under
| I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State | The Directive Principles of State Policy
| II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture | The Fundamental Duties
| III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories | The Fundamental Rights
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Answer (c) & explanation
All three pairs are correctly matched (c). Pair I is right: separation of the judiciary from the executive is Article 50, a Directive Principle. Pair II is right: valuing and preserving our composite culture is Article 51A(f), a Fundamental Duty. Pair III is right: no child below 14 may work in factories, mines or hazardous work under Article 24, a Fundamental Right. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice related provisions: Article 21A gives free education for ages 6–14 (86th Amendment, 2002), and Article 51A(k) asks parents to educate their children. The Child Labour Amendment Act, 2016 banned all child labour below 14. Article 39(e) and (f) protect children too.
Article 45 (early childhood care, a DPSP) and Article 24 (a Fundamental Right) both talk about children. Keep them apart.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
No official answer (question dropped) & notes
UPSC dropped this question, so no answer was counted. The ideas are still worth knowing. The 1st Amendment (1951) answered court rulings on land reform and free speech: it added the Ninth Schedule to shield land laws and new limits to Article 19(2). The 42nd Amendment (1976) also tried to put laws based on the Directive Principles beyond Fundamental Rights challenges. The 44th (1978) undid many Emergency changes, and the 86th (2002) made education a Fundamental Right. More than one option fits "widely believed", which is likely why it was dropped.
Notice the long tussle: courts struck down laws, Parliament amended, and Kesavananda Bharati (1973) finally set the basic structure limit on amendments.
UPSC did not evaluate this question, so no official answer exists. Use it for practice only.
UPSC dropped this question from evaluation; there is no official answer.
Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?
Answer (a) & explanation
An independent judiciary is the essential federal feature (a). A federation divides power between the Union and the States. That division needs an independent umpire to settle disputes between them and to interpret the Constitution, so the independence of the judiciary is an essential federal feature. In India, the Supreme Court settles Centre–State disputes under Article 131. Option (b) can exist in a unitary state with regional seats. Option (c) is a matter of politics, not structure. Option (d) concerns rights, which unitary states also protect.
Notice the other federal features: a written Constitution, division of powers (Seventh Schedule), bicameralism and a rigid amendment process. India is often called "quasi-federal", after K.C. Wheare.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
What is the position of the Right to Property in India?
Answer (b) & explanation
Property is a legal right available to any person (b). The 44th Amendment (1978) removed the right to property from Part III, the Fundamental Rights. It is now a constitutional (legal) right under Article 300A: "No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law." The word "person" covers non-citizens and companies too, not just citizens. So option (a) is wrong for limiting it to citizens. Options (c) and (d) are wrong: it is no longer a Fundamental Right, but it is still a legal right.
Notice that the right was once in Articles 19(1)(f) and 31. Because it is not a Fundamental Right, a person must go to a High Court under Article 226, not straight to the Supreme Court under Article 32.
"citizens only". Article 300A says "person".
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Mains PYQs on this topic (1)
Write an answer
In 150 words, explain the significance of Fundamental Rights with one recent example.
Flashcards (8)
Equality before law vs equal protection of
laws Equality before law: British, negative, no one above law. Equal protection: American, positive, equals treated alike.
Which case led to the 1st Amendment
inserting Art 15(4)? State of Madras v Champakam Dorairajan (1951).
Three rules from Indra Sawhney (1992)?
27% OBC quota upheld; creamy layer excluded; 50% ceiling (except extraordinary cases).
Are the Bharat Ratna and Padma awards
"titles" under Art 18? No: Balaji Raghavan (1995).
The six freedoms of Art 19(1)?
Speech, Assembly, Association (incl. co- operatives), Movement, Residence, Profession.
Which three grounds did the 1st
Amendment add to Art 19(2)? Public order, friendly relations with foreign States, incitement to an offence (plus the word "reasonable").
Why was Section 66A of the IT Act struck
down? Vague and overbroad; went beyond Art 19(2) grounds (Shreya Singhal, 2015).
The three protections in Art 20?
No ex post facto criminal law, no double jeopardy, no self-incrimination.
Read more: related explainers
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