Chapter 6 · Topic 6.3 · Prelims + Mains3 of 5

Fundamental Rights: Article 21, religion and minority rights

Key points

  • Art 21 grew after Maneka Gandhi: livelihood, environment, privacy, dignity, shelter.

Prelims box: facts and traps

  • Read into Art 21 → Case: Speedy trial; free legal aid → Hussainara Khatoon (1979); M.H. Hoskot (1978); Livelihood → Olga Tellis (1985); Pollution-free water and air → Subhash Kumar (1991); Safety of women at work → Vishaka (1997); Privacy → K.S. Puttaswamy (2017); Choice of partner → Shafin Jahan (2018); Dignity in dying (living will) → Common Cause (2018); Shelter: no punitive demolition without due process → In Re: Demolition of Structures (2024).
  • WHY IT MATTERS Basis for the DPDP Act 2023, the Aadhaar ruling (2018) and Navtej Johar (2018).
  • 1950 A.K. Gopalan Any procedure laid down by a valid law is enough; rights read in silos. 1976 ADM Jabalpur No habeas corpus during the Emergency (later overruled). 1978 Maneka Gandhi Procedure must be just, fair and reasonable.
  • Article 25(2)(b) was central to the Sabarimala case (2018), where a 4:1 majority allowed women of all ages to enter; broader questions were referred to a larger bench in November 2019.
  • Trap (UPSC Prelims 2011): “The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha” is incorrect.
  • Trap: The Constitution does not define 'minority', and the Union's notification under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992 is for that Act's purposes, not the test for Article 30.

Article 21: from “procedure” to “due process”

Art 21 is a single line: No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. Most of modern Indian rights law has been built on it. Mains 2023

Asked by UPSCUPSC Mains 2023 · GS Paper II · Q11 · 15 marks

“The Constitution of India is a living instrument with capabilities of enormous dynamism. It is a constitution made for a progressive society.” Illustrate with special reference to the expanding horizons of the right to life and personal liberty.

Stage 1, A.K. Gopalan (1950). Read narrowly: any procedure laid down by a valid law was enough, and each FR was a separate silo. Stage 2, Maneka Gandhi (1978). A seven-judge bench threw out the silos. A law touching Art 21 must also meet Arts 14 and 19 (the “golden triangle”), and its procedure must be just, fair and reasonable. In effect this brought American-style due process into India.

Asked by UPSCUPSC Prelims 2023 · GS Paper I · Q31

In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?

  1. The principle of natural justice
  2. The procedure established by law
  3. Fair application of law
  4. Equality before law
Show answer

Answer: (a) · UPSC official key

HOW ART 21 GREW

1950A.K. GopalanAny procedure laid down by a valid law is enough; rights read in silos.
1976ADM JabalpurNo habeas corpus during the Emergency (later overruled).
1978Maneka GandhiProcedure must be just, fair and reasonable; Arts 14, 19, 21 read together.
1980s–90sNew rights read inSpeedy trial, legal aid, livelihood, clean environment, workplace safety.
2017K.S. PuttaswamyPrivacy is a Fundamental Right; ADM Jabalpur overruled.
2024Demolition guidelinesNo punitive demolition without notice and due process.
Read into Art 21Case
Speedy trial; free legal aidHussainara Khatoon (1979); M.H. Hoskot (1978)
LivelihoodOlga Tellis (1985)
Pollution-free water and airSubhash Kumar (1991)
Safety of women at workVishaka (1997)
PrivacyK.S. Puttaswamy (2017)
Choice of partnerShafin Jahan (2018)
Dignity in dying (living will)Common Cause (2018)
Shelter: no punitive demolition without due processIn Re: Demolition of Structures (2024)
Asked by UPSCUPSC Mains 2015 · GS Paper II · Q7 · 12.5 marks

Does the right to clean environment entail legal regulations on burning crackers during Diwali? Discuss in the light of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution and Judgement(s) of the Apex Court in this regard.

Asked by UPSCUPSC Prelims 2019 · GS Paper I · Q56

Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?

  1. Article 19
  2. Article 21
  3. Article 25
  4. Article 29
Show answer

Answer: (b) · UPSC official key

Asked by UPSCUPSC Mains 2017 · GS Paper II · Q12 · 15 marks

Examine the scope of Fundamental Rights in the light of the latest judgement of the Supreme Court on Right to Privacy.

Asked by UPSCUPSC Mains 2024 · GS Paper II · Q12 · 15 marks

Right to privacy is intrinsic to life and personal liberty and is inherently protected under Article 21 of the constitution. Explain. In this reference discuss the law relating to D.N.A. testing of child in the womb to establish its paternity.

Asked by UPSCUPSC Mains 2026 · GS Paper II · Q1 · 10 marks

Right to privacy relating to self-identity is very dear to every human being and well protected under Article 21 of the Constitution. In this context, examine the effect of the amendment in 2026, to the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019.

Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v Union of India 2017

Held: A nine-judge bench held unanimously that privacy is a fundamental right under Art 21

and Part III, and overruled ADM Jabalpur.

WHY IT MATTERS Basis for the DPDP Act 2023, the Aadhaar ruling (2018) and Navtej Johar (2018).

Asked by UPSCUPSC Prelims 2018 · GS Paper I · Q92

Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

  1. Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
  2. Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
  3. Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
  4. Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
Show answer

Answer: (c) · UPSC official key

Asked by UPSCUPSC Prelims 2021 · GS Paper I · Q79

‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?

  1. Article 15
  2. Article 19
  3. Article 21
  4. Article 29
Show answer

Answer: (c) · UPSC official key

Asked by UPSCUPSC Prelims 2024 · GS Paper I · Q76

Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy ?

  1. Article 15
  2. Article 16
  3. Article 19
  4. Article 21
Show answer

Answer: (d) · UPSC official key

Religion (25–28) and minorities (29–30)

India’s secularism is not a wall between State and religion. The State keeps its distance but may step in to reform. Art 25 itself allows laws on social welfare and reform, and on throwing open Hindu religious institutions to all sections.

ArticleRightNote
25Freedom of conscience; to profess, practise, propagate religionSubject to public order, morality, health. Wearing and carrying kirpans is part of Sikh religion
26Denominations may manage their own religious affairsShirur Mutt (1954): only essential religious practices are protected
27No tax whose proceeds go to promote a particular religionFees are allowed, taxes are not
28No religious instruction in wholly State-funded institutionsAllowed in institutions run under a trust or endowment
29Any section of citizens may conserve its language, script, cultureProtects minorities and majority groups; no denial of State-aided admission on religion, race, caste, language
30Religious and linguistic minorities may establish and run educational institutionsMinority status is decided State-wise (TMA Pai, 2002); 30(1A) compensation if property is acquired
Asked by UPSCUPSC Prelims 2011 · GS Paper I · Q33

In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to ? 1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions. 2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha. 3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Show answer

Answer: (c) · UPSC official key

Shayara Bano v Union of India 2017

By 3:2, instant triple talaq (talaq-e-biddat) was set aside. WHY IT MATTERS Parliament then passed the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019.

→ Indian vs Western secularism (GS1 Society) Arts 25–28 are the legal backbone of that debate.

Mains box: analysis and answer points

  • Art 21 is a single line: No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.
  • Most of modern Indian rights law has been built on it.
  • Read narrowly: any procedure laid down by a valid law was enough, and each FR was a separate silo.
  • Likely next angle: Data protection under the DPDP Act and Art 21
  • Asked: Mains 2023 (GS Paper II, 15 marks): The Constitution of India is a living instrument with capabilities of enormous dynamism. It is a constitution made for a progressive society. Illustrate with special reference to the expanding horizons of the right to life and personal liberty.

Practice

Practice MCQs (8)

Q1 · Battle IAS practice

The freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion under Article 25 is available to

Answer (c) & explanation

Article 25(1) says 'all persons' are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion, subject to public order, morality, health and the other provisions of Part III. So it protects foreigners in India as well as citizens, and people of every faith or none. Article 25(2) lets the State regulate secular activities linked with religious practice and make laws for social reform. Explanation II, which treats Sikhs, Jains and Buddhists as Hindus, applies only to Article 25(2)(b). The rights of religious denominations as groups are in Article 26, which requires no registration. In Rev. Stainislaus v. State of M.P. (1977) the Court held that the right to propagate does not include a right to convert another person. Explanation I to Article 25 protects the wearing and carrying of kirpans by Sikhs.

Q2 · Battle IAS practice

Consider the following statements:
1. The freedom of religion under Article 25 is available to foreigners residing in India as well.
2. The rights under Article 26, such as managing its own affairs in matters of religion, belong to individuals and not to religious denominations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer (a) & explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Article 25 uses the words 'all persons', so foreigners living in India also enjoy freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practise and propagate religion, subject to public order, morality, health and the other provisions of Part III. Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 26 gives its rights to 'every religious denomination or any section thereof': to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes, manage its own affairs in matters of religion, own and acquire property, and administer it in accordance with law. Article 26 is thus a collective or group right; the Shirur Mutt case (1954) described a denomination as a collection of individuals with a common faith, a common organisation and a distinctive name. The courts use the 'essential religious practice' test, first set out in the Shirur Mutt case (1954), to decide what Article 26 protects.

Q3 · Battle IAS practice

Consider the following statements:
1. Under Article 29(2), no citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste or language.
2. The protection of language, script and culture under Article 29(1) is available only to religious and linguistic minorities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer (a) & explanation

Statement 1 is correct and reproduces Article 29(2): no citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language or any of them. Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 29(1) protects 'any section of the citizens' residing in India or any part of it having a distinct language, script or culture of its own. The Supreme Court has held that it is not limited to minorities and can extend to a section of the majority as well. Article 30, by contrast, is expressly limited to religious and linguistic minorities. Article 29(2) is an individual right that protects every citizen, including members of the majority, from denial of admission on the listed grounds.

Q4 · Battle IAS practice

Consider the following statements:
1. Article 29(2), which bars denial of admission on grounds only of religion, race, caste or language, applies to all private unaided educational institutions.
2. Article 28(1) bars religious instruction in every educational institution receiving aid out of State funds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer (d) & explanation

Neither statement is correct. Statement 1: Article 29(2) applies only to educational institutions maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds; it does not reach private unaided institutions, which are dealt with separately, for example by Article 15(5) and the RTE Act. Statement 2: Article 28(1) bars religious instruction only in institutions wholly maintained out of State funds. For institutions that are merely aided or recognised, Article 28(3) applies instead: religious instruction may be given, but no one can be compelled to attend it without consent, or a guardian's consent for a minor. Article 28(2) also exempts State- administered institutions set up under a trust that requires religious instruction.

Q5 · Battle IAS practice

Under Article 25(2) of the Constitution of India, nothing in Article 25 prevents the State from making a law
1. regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice.
2. providing for social welfare and reform.
3. throwing open Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
Which of the above are correct?

Answer (d) & explanation

All three. Article 25(2)(a) saves any existing or future law regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice, such as the management of temple funds. Article 25(2)(b) saves laws providing for social welfare and reform, such as laws against untouchability, bigamy or sati, and for throwing open Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus, such as temple-entry laws. Explanation II says 'Hindus' here includes persons professing the Sikh, Jaina or Buddhist religion. These clauses let the State reform religious practice without violating Article 25. Article 25(2)(b) was central to the Sabarimala case (2018), where a 4:1 majority allowed women of all ages to enter; broader questions were referred to a larger bench in November 2019.

Q6 · Battle IAS practice

Consider the following statements about Article 28 of the Constitution of India:
1. Religious instruction may be given in an educational institution administered by the State but established under an endowment or trust that requires such instruction.
2. A minor student in an educational institution receiving aid out of State funds can be required to attend religious instruction there without the consent of his guardian.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer (a) & explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Article 28(1) bars religious instruction in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds, but Article 28(2) lifts that bar for an institution administered by the State that was established under an endowment or trust requiring religious instruction. Statement 2 is incorrect: under Article 28(3), no person attending an institution recognised by the State or receiving State aid shall be required to take part in religious instruction or worship there without his consent, or, for a minor, the consent of his guardian. So Article 28 creates three categories: wholly State-maintained (barred), State-administered trust (allowed), and recognised or aided (allowed, but voluntary).

Q7 · Battle IAS practice

Consider the following statements:
1. Article 30(1A) requires that the amount fixed for the compulsory acquisition of property of a minority educational institution must not restrict or abrogate the right guaranteed under Article 30.
2. Under Article 30(2), the State shall not discriminate against an educational institution in granting aid on the ground that it is under the management of a minority.
3. The term 'minority' is defined in Article 366 of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Answer (b) & explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Article 30(1A), inserted by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978 when the right to property was removed from Part III, requires that in any law for compulsory acquisition of property of a minority educational institution, the amount fixed shall be such as would not restrict or abrogate the right under Article 30(1). Article 30(2) bars the State from discriminating against an institution in grant of aid on the ground that it is under minority management. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Constitution does not define 'minority', and Article 366 has no such entry. Minorities are notified under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992, and for Article 30 they are identified State-wise (T.M.A. Pai, 2002). Minority rights under Article 30 are not absolute: in T.M.A. Pai the Court held that the State can regulate standards, qualifications and fair admission in such institutions.

Q8 · Battle IAS practice

In T.M.A. Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka (2002), an eleven-judge bench of the Supreme Court held that, for the purposes of Article 30, religious and linguistic minorities are to be determined

Answer (c) & explanation

In T.M.A. Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka (2002), an eleven-judge bench held that, because the States were reorganised on linguistic lines, the unit for deciding who is a linguistic minority for Article 30 is the State, not the whole of India; and religious minorities must be judged on the same basis. A community that is a majority nationally can therefore be a minority in a particular State, and vice versa. The Constitution does not define 'minority', and the Union's notification under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992 is for that Act's purposes, not the test for Article 30. The case also held that running educational institutions is an occupation under Article 19(1)(g). At the national level, six communities are notified as minorities under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992: Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis and Jains (added in 2014).

0 / 0 correct

Prelims PYQs on this topic (8)

UPSC Prelims 2025 · GS Paper I

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements :

  • I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
  • II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
  • III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Answer (c) & explanation

Statements I and III are correct (c). An Ordinance under Article 123 has the same force as an Act of Parliament. Statement I is right: so it can amend any Central Act. Statement III is right: like an Act, it can be made retrospective, taking effect from a back date. Statement II is wrong: Article 13 counts an Ordinance as "law", and no law can take away or abridge Fundamental Rights. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.

Notice the limits: an Ordinance can be issued only when Parliament is not in session, and it lapses six weeks after Parliament reassembles unless approved. In Krishna Kumar Singh (2017), the Supreme Court held that re-promulgating Ordinances again and again is a fraud on the Constitution. Governors have the same power under Article 213.

Trap

"same force as an Act" makes students think an Ordinance can do anything. It carries the same limits too.

Traps like this come back in new clothes. The PYQ Book collects all of them, topic by topic, so none catch you twice. Try the free sample

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2025 · GS Paper I

Consider the following pairs :

| Provision in the Constitution of India | Stated under

| I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State | The Directive Principles of State Policy

| II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture | The Fundamental Duties

| III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories | The Fundamental Rights

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Answer (c) & explanation

All three pairs are correctly matched (c). Pair I is right: separation of the judiciary from the executive is Article 50, a Directive Principle. Pair II is right: valuing and preserving our composite culture is Article 51A(f), a Fundamental Duty. Pair III is right: no child below 14 may work in factories, mines or hazardous work under Article 24, a Fundamental Right. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.

Notice related provisions: Article 21A gives free education for ages 6–14 (86th Amendment, 2002), and Article 51A(k) asks parents to educate their children. The Child Labour Amendment Act, 2016 banned all child labour below 14. Article 39(e) and (f) protect children too.

Trap

Article 45 (early childhood care, a DPSP) and Article 24 (a Fundamental Right) both talk about children. Keep them apart.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2024 · GS Paper I

Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy ?

Answer (d) & explanation

The Supreme Court placed the Right to Privacy under Article 21 (d). In Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), a nine-judge Bench held that privacy is part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21, and also flows from the freedoms in Part III. It overruled the older M.P. Sharma (1954) and Kharak Singh (1962) rulings. Option (a) is wrong: Article 15 bans discrimination. Option (b) is wrong: Article 16 gives equal opportunity in public jobs. Option (c) is wrong: Article 19 lists six freedoms, such as speech.

Notice that most new rights, such as food, shelter, livelihood and a clean environment, came through Article 21. Parliament later passed the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2023 · GS Paper I

In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

No official answer (question dropped) & notes

UPSC dropped this question, so no answer was counted. The ideas are still worth knowing. The 1st Amendment (1951) answered court rulings on land reform and free speech: it added the Ninth Schedule to shield land laws and new limits to Article 19(2). The 42nd Amendment (1976) also tried to put laws based on the Directive Principles beyond Fundamental Rights challenges. The 44th (1978) undid many Emergency changes, and the 86th (2002) made education a Fundamental Right. More than one option fits "widely believed", which is likely why it was dropped.

Notice the long tussle: courts struck down laws, Parliament amended, and Kesavananda Bharati (1973) finally set the basic structure limit on amendments.

UPSC did not evaluate this question, so no official answer exists. Use it for practice only.

UPSC dropped this question from evaluation; there is no official answer.

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UPSC Prelims 2021 · GS Paper I

Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?

Answer (a) & explanation

An independent judiciary is the essential federal feature (a). A federation divides power between the Union and the States. That division needs an independent umpire to settle disputes between them and to interpret the Constitution, so the independence of the judiciary is an essential federal feature. In India, the Supreme Court settles Centre–State disputes under Article 131. Option (b) can exist in a unitary state with regional seats. Option (c) is a matter of politics, not structure. Option (d) concerns rights, which unitary states also protect.

Notice the other federal features: a written Constitution, division of powers (Seventh Schedule), bicameralism and a rigid amendment process. India is often called "quasi-federal", after K.C. Wheare.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2021 · GS Paper I

What is the position of the Right to Property in India?

Answer (b) & explanation

Property is a legal right available to any person (b). The 44th Amendment (1978) removed the right to property from Part III, the Fundamental Rights. It is now a constitutional (legal) right under Article 300A: "No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law." The word "person" covers non-citizens and companies too, not just citizens. So option (a) is wrong for limiting it to citizens. Options (c) and (d) are wrong: it is no longer a Fundamental Right, but it is still a legal right.

Notice that the right was once in Articles 19(1)(f) and 31. Because it is not a Fundamental Right, a person must go to a High Court under Article 226, not straight to the Supreme Court under Article 32.

Trap

"citizens only". Article 300A says "person".

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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Mains PYQs on this topic (3)

Write an answer

In 150 words, explain the significance of Fundamental Rights with one recent example.

Flashcards (5)

Golden triangle

Arts 14, 19 and 21 read together (Maneka Gandhi, 1978); procedure must be just, fair and reasonable.

Which bench declared privacy a

Fundamental Right, and when? Nine judges, unanimous, K.S. Puttaswamy, 24 Aug 2017.

Essential religious practices test

Only practices integral to a religion get Art 25–26 protection (Shirur Mutt, 1954).

At what level is minority status decided for

Art 30? State-wise (TMA Pai Foundation, 2002).

Art 358 vs Art 359 in one line?

358 suspends Art 19 automatically (war or external aggression only); 359 suspends enforcement of named rights by Presidential order; Arts 20 and 21 never.

Read more: related explainers

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Next topic · 6.4 →Fundamental Rights: Art 13, amendments and FR vs DPSP

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