UPSC Prelims PYQs with explanations
Real questions from official papers, mapped to syllabus topics. Attempt each one; the answer and the reason appear instantly.
Read the passage
Along with sustainable lifestyles, climate justice is regarded as a significant principle in environmental parlance. Both the principles have bearings on political and economic choices of the nation. So far, in our climate change summits or compacts, both the principles have eluded consensus among nations. Justice, in the judicial sense, is well defined. However, in the context of climate change, it has scientific as well as socio-political connotations. The crucial question in the next few years will be how resources, technologies and regulations are used to support the victims of climate change. Justice in climate is not confined to actions relating to mitigation, but includes the wider notion of support for adaptation to climate change and compensation for loss and damage.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the passage ?
Answer (a) & explanation
The crucial message is that climate justice should be built in detail into the rules of new climate agreements (a). Step 1: the passage says climate justice has "eluded consensus" in climate summits. Step 2: it says justice covers not just mitigation but also adaptation support and loss and damage. These need to be spelled out in agreements. That is (a). Step 3: option (b), uneven resources, and option (c), climate refugees, are not the main point. Option (d) blames developed countries, which the passage does not state.
Tip: a Loss and Damage Fund was agreed at COP27 (2022) and made operational at COP28 (2023). It is a step toward the climate justice this passage discusses.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the sequence ABC_ _ABC_DABBCD_ABCD that follows a certain pattern. Which one of the following completes the sequence?
Answer (d) & explanation
The sequence is completed by DDCA (d). Step 1: put D, D, C, A into the gaps. The sequence becomes ABCDDABCCDABBCDAABCD. Step 2: split it into blocks of four: ABCD, DABC, CDAB, BCDA, ABCD. Step 3: each block moves the last letter to the front of the previous block. The pattern holds throughout, so (d). Options (a), (b) and (c) break it.
Tip: in letter-series gaps, try each option and split the result into equal blocks. A rotation pattern is very common.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
- 2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
- 3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
All three statements are correct (c). Statement 1 is right: nigerseed (Guizotia abyssinica) is one of the 22 crops that get a Minimum Support Price, among the kharif oilseeds. Statement 2 is right: it is sown as a kharif crop, often late in the season, on poor, sloping hilly soils where little else grows. Statement 3 is right: it is grown mainly in the tribal belts of Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra, and tribal families use its oil for cooking.
Notice the MSP list: 14 kharif crops, 6 rabi crops, plus jute and copra, with a Fair and Remunerative Price for sugarcane. The CACP recommends these prices. India still imports much of its edible oil, hence the oilseed missions.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements :
- 1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
- 2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
- 3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
All three statements are correct (c). Green hydrogen is made by splitting water using renewable electricity. Statement 1 is right: it can be burnt directly in a modified internal combustion engine, and trucks and buses running this way are being tested. Statement 2 is right: it can be blended with natural gas, often up to about 20%, for heating or power; India has tested this in city gas networks. Statement 3 is right: it can be used in a fuel cell, which combines hydrogen with oxygen to make electricity, emitting only water, to run vehicles.
Notice India's National Green Hydrogen Mission (2023), which aims at 5 million tonnes a year by 2030. Its main early users will be fertiliser plants, refineries and steel.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following pairs :
| Regions often mentioned in news | Reason for being in news
| 1. North Kivu and Ituri | War between Armenia and Azerbaijan
| 2. Nagorno-Karabakh | Insurgency in Mozambique
| 3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia | Dispute between Israel and Lebanon
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Answer (d) & explanation
None of the pairs is correctly matched (d). Pair 1 is wrong: North Kivu and Ituri are conflict provinces of the DR Congo, where the M23 rebels and other militias fight. Pair 2 is wrong: Nagorno-Karabakh was the Armenia–Azerbaijan dispute, which Azerbaijan settled by force in 2023. Pair 3 is wrong: Kherson and Zaporizhzhia are Ukrainian regions in the Russia–Ukraine war, which Russia claims to have annexed in 2022; Zaporizhzhia has Europe's largest nuclear plant. The decoys are mixed up: Mozambique's insurgency is in Cabo Delgado, and the Israel–Lebanon dispute is along the Blue Line.
Notice that in 2025, M23 seized Goma and Bukavu in eastern Congo, before US- and Qatar-brokered peace efforts.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
Good corporate governance structures encourage companies to provide accountability and control. A fundamental reason why corporate governance has moved onto the economic and political agenda worldwide has been the rapid growth in international capital markets. Effective corporate governance enhances access to external financing by firms, leading to greater investment, higher growth and employment. Investors look to place their funds where the standards of disclosure, of timely and accurate financial reporting, and of equal treatment to all stakeholders are met.
Which of the following statements best reflects the logical inference from the passage given above ?
Answer (b) & explanation
The logical inference is that good corporate governance improves firms' credibility (b). Step 1: the passage says investors put their money where disclosure, accurate reporting and fair treatment are strong. So good governance builds trust. That is (b). Step 2: option (a) says external financing is the world's agenda. But the passage says corporate governance moved onto the agenda. Step 3: option (c) says capital markets ensure good governance; they only explain its rise. Option (d), supply chains, is not mentioned.
Tip: separate cause from result. Capital markets explain why governance became important; they do not guarantee it.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
40 children are standing in a circle and one of them (say child-1) has a ring. The ring is passed clockwise. Child-1 passes on to child-2, child-2 passes on to child-4, child-4 passes on to child-7 and so on. After how many such changes (including child-1) will the ring be in the hands of child-1 again ?
Answer (b) & explanation
The ring returns after 15 changes (b). Step 1: the jumps grow by one each time: 1, 2, 3 and so on. After k passes, the ring has moved 1 + 2 + ... + k = k(k + 1)/2 places. Step 2: it is back with child-1 when this is a multiple of 40. So k(k + 1) must be a multiple of 80 = 16 × 5. Step 3: the smallest such k is 15, since 15 × 16 = 240 = 80 × 3. Options (a) 14, (c) 16 and (d) 17 do not give a multiple of 80 first.
Tip: in a circle of n, you return to the start when the total steps moved is a multiple of n.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?
Answer (d) & explanation
Ilmenite and rutile are sources of titanium (d). Ilmenite is an iron-titanium oxide and rutile is titanium dioxide; both are the main ores of titanium. They are found in the black beach sands of Kerala (Chavara), Odisha and Tamil Nadu, along with monazite, zircon and garnet. Option (a) is wrong: aluminium comes from bauxite. Option (b) is wrong: copper comes from ores like chalcopyrite. Option (c) is a trap: ilmenite has iron, but it is mined for titanium; iron comes from haematite and magnetite.
Notice the uses: titanium dioxide is a white pigment in paints and sunscreen, and titanium metal is light and strong, used in aircraft and spacecraft. Monazite in the same sands contains thorium, key to India's nuclear plans.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’
- 1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
- 2. hunting is not allowed in such area
- 3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
- 4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices
How many of the above statements are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Two statements are correct (b). Community reserves were added to the Wild Life (Protection) Act in 2003. They are notified on community or private land with the people's consent; note that under the Act it is the State Government, not the Centre, that notifies them. Statement 1 is wrong: a Community Reserve Management Committee runs them, not the Chief Wildlife Warden. Statement 2 is right: hunting is banned. Statement 3 is right: people may collect non-timber forest produce. Statement 4 is wrong: changes in land use, including traditional farming or jhum, are not allowed.
Notice the four types of protected areas: national parks, sanctuaries, conservation reserves and community reserves. Many community reserves are in Meghalaya and Nagaland, where communities own most forests.
"governing authority" tempts you because the Warden does run sanctuaries.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements with reference to India :
- 1. According to the 'Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006', the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between ₹15 crore and ₹25 crore.
- 2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only statement 2 is correct (b). Statement 1 is wrong: since 2020, a medium enterprise has had a combined test of investment and turnover, and the limits were raised again in 2025 to investment up to ₹125 crore and turnover up to ₹500 crore. The old 2006 limit for medium manufacturing firms was ₹10 crore. None of these is ₹15–25 crore. Statement 2 is right: under the RBI's priority sector rules, all bank loans to MSMEs that meet the MSMED definition count as priority sector lending.
Notice the target: banks must give 40% of their loans to priority sectors, with a sub-target of 7.5% for micro enterprises. MSMEs register on the Udyam portal, and over 6 crore firms have done so.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
We often hear about conflicts among different States in India over river waters. Of the 20 major river systems, 14 are already water-stressed; 75% of the population lives in water-stressed regions, a third of whom live in water-scarce areas. Climate change, the demands of rising population and the need for agriculture to keep pace, and increased rate of urbanization and industrialization will exacerbate water stress. According to the Constitution of India, water is a State subject and not that of the Union, except for regulation of inter-State rivers. Key to ensuring balance between competing demands of various stakeholders is a basin-based approach to allocate water amongst constituent regions and States. Allocating fair share of water to them requires assessments based on objective criteria, such as specificities of the river basin, size of dependent population, existing water use and demand, efficiency of use, projected future use, etc. while ensuring the environmental needs of the river and aquifers.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the most rational, practical and immediate action required to ensure fair and equitable allocation of water to different stakeholders ?
Answer (a) & explanation
The immediate action is a national, practical legal and policy framework for allocating water (a). Step 1: the passage says water is a State subject, and States often fight over rivers. Step 2: it says the key is a basin-based approach that shares water using objective criteria: basin features, population, current use, efficiency and future needs. That is a framework for allocation, so (a). Step 3: options (b) river linking and (c) new channels are engineering projects the passage never proposes. Option (d), cutting demand, is not the fair-allocation step it asks for.
Tip: under the Constitution, water is in the State List (Entry 17), while inter-State rivers fall under the Union (Entry 56). This is why fair-sharing rules matter.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
There is a claim that organic farming is inherently safer and healthier. The reality is that because the organic farming industry is still young and not well-regulated in India, farmers and consumers, alike, are not only confused about what products are best for them, but sometimes use products in ways that could harm them as well. For example, since organic fertilizers are difficult to obtain on a large scale in India, farmers often use farmyard manure, which may contain toxic chemicals and heavy metals. Certain plant sprays, such as Datura flower and leaf spray, have an element called atropine. If it is not applied in the right dose, it can act on the nervous system of the consumer. Unfortunately, how much and when to use it are not well-researched or regulated issues.
Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :
- 1. Organic farming is inherently unsafe for both farmers and consumers.
- 2. Farmers and consumers need to be educated about eco-friendly food.
Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct ?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only assumption 2 is correct (b). Step 1: the passage says farmers and consumers are confused about which products are best and sometimes use them in harmful ways. So both need to be educated (2). Step 2: it blames harm on poor regulation, contaminated farmyard manure and wrong doses of sprays like Datura. Step 3: it does not say organic farming is inherently unsafe (1). The problem is misuse, not organic farming itself. So options (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Tip: "inherently" means by its very nature. If the passage blames how something is used, it is not inherently bad.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
In an examination, the maximum marks for each of the four papers namely P, Q, R and S are 100. Marks scored by the students are in integers. A student can score 99% in n different ways. What is the value of n ?
Answer (d) & explanation
1. 99% of 400 = 396, so the student loses exactly 4 marks in total across the four papers.
2. Count the ways to share the 4 lost marks:
3. All 4 in one paper: 4 ways. 3 + 1: 4 × 3 = 12 ways. 2 + 2: 6 ways. 2 + 1 + 1: 12 ways. 1 + 1 + 1 + 1: 1 way.
4. Total 4 + 12 + 6 + 12 + 1 = 35.
'no paper above 100' does not cut any case here, because a loss can't be negative.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels :
- 1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
- 2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
- 3. They are omnivorous.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Two statements are correct (b). Statement 1 is wrong: Indian squirrels, such as the palm squirrel and the giant squirrel, build nests in trees, in holes or of twigs and leaves, not burrows in the ground. Statement 2 is right: they bury nuts and seeds to eat later, a habit called caching. Forgotten caches often sprout, so squirrels help spread trees. Statement 3 is right: they are omnivorous, eating insects, eggs and even small birds as well as fruits, seeds and flowers.
Notice the Indian giant squirrel (Malabar giant squirrel), the state animal of Maharashtra, and the Grizzled giant squirrel, which has a sanctuary at Srivilliputhur in Tamil Nadu. Ground squirrels that do burrow, like marmots, are a different group.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?
Answer (d) & explanation
The Charter Act of 1833 made the post Governor-General of India (d). The Charter Act of 1833 turned the Governor-General of Bengal into the Governor-General of India, with all civil and military powers. William Bentinck was the first to hold the title. Option (a) is wrong: the Regulating Act (1773) made the Governor of Bengal the Governor-General of Bengal, and Warren Hastings was the first. Option (b) is wrong: Pitt's India Act (1784) set up the Board of Control, creating dual government. Option (c) is wrong: the Charter Act of 1793 only renewed the Company's charter for 20 years.
Notice what else 1833 did: it ended the Company's trade role entirely, and added a law member (Macaulay) to the council. After 1858, the title became Viceroy, first held by Canning.
The Regulating Act created the "Governor-General of Bengal". The India title came 60 years later.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following pairs :
| Site | Well known for
| 1. Besnagar | Shaivite cave shrine
| 2. Bhaja | Buddhist cave shrine
| 3. Sittanavasal | Jain cave shrine
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Answer (b) & explanation
Two pairs are correctly matched (b). Pair 2 is right: Bhaja in Maharashtra, near Lonavala, has early Buddhist chaitya and vihara caves of about the 2nd century BCE. Pair 3 is right: Sittanavasal in Pudukkottai, Tamil Nadu, is a Jain cave shrine with fine paintings of a lotus pond. Pair 1 is wrong: Besnagar, near Vidisha, is known for the Heliodorus pillar (about 113 BCE), raised by a Greek envoy in honour of Vasudeva, a Vaishnava monument, not a Shaivite cave.
Notice that Heliodorus, envoy of the Indo-Greek king Antialcidas, called himself a Bhagavata, an early sign of Bhagavatism. Other famous Buddhist caves of the area are Karla, Kanheri and Ajanta.
Udayagiri, near Besnagar, has Gupta cave shrines. Do not let the nearby caves pull Besnagar into pair 1.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
Environmental problems cause health problems. Substantial changes in lifestyle can reduce environmental or health problems, but this idea appears almost impossible to adopt. With environmental problems, individual efforts can be perceived as having a negligible effect and therefore lead to inertia. With health, on the other hand, individual choices can make the difference between life and death, literally. And yet, barring a few, there seems to be the same collective lethargy towards making their choices.
Which one of the following statements best implies the most rational assumption that can be made from the passage ?
Answer (a) & explanation
The rational assumption is that we are likely to spend more on cure than prevention (a). Step 1: the passage says lifestyle changes could cut health problems. Step 2: but people show "collective lethargy" about making those choices, even when life and death are at stake. If they will not prevent illness, they will later pay for cure. That is (a). Step 3: option (c), health protected while environmental problems go on, goes against the first line. Options (b), government's job, and (d), western values, are not in the passage.
Tip: an assumption often follows from the passage's main complaint. Here the complaint is inaction on prevention.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
A principal P becomes Q in 1 year when compounded half-yearly with R% annual rate of interest. If the same principal P becomes Q in 1 year when compounded annually with S% annual rate of interest, then which one of the following is correct ?
Answer (c) & explanation
R is less than S (c). Step 1: at the same rate, half-yearly compounding gives more than annual compounding, because interest earns interest sooner. Step 2: here both give the same amount Q. So the half-yearly rate R must be smaller. Step 3: exactly: (1 + R/200)² = 1 + S/100, which gives S = R + R²/400. So S is always more than R for any positive rate. Option (a) and (d) allow equality, which is impossible. Option (b) reverses it.
Tip: more frequent compounding needs a lower rate to reach the same amount. This is why banks quote both a nominal and an effective rate.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
AB and CD are 2-digit numbers. Multiplying AB with CD results in a 3-digit number DEF. Adding DEF to another 3-digit number GHI results in 975. Further A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I are distinct digits. If E = 0, F = 8, then what is A + B + C equal to?
Answer (a) & explanation
A + B + C is 6 (a). Step 1: AB × CD = D08, a 3-digit number. So both AB and CD are small, and B × D must end in 8. Step 2: try 12 × 34 = 408. Here D = 4, E = 0 and F = 8. Then GHI = 975 − 408 = 567. Step 3: all nine digits (1, 2, 3, 4, 0, 8, 5, 6, 7) are distinct. So A + B + C = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6. Options (b), (c) and (d) do not fit.
Tip: in such puzzles, a small product means small factors. Start with the smallest two-digit numbers.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the investments in the following assets :
- 1. Brand recognition
- 2. Inventory
- 3. Intellectual property
- 4. Mailing list of clients
How many of the above are considered intangible investments?
Answer (c) & explanation
Three of the four are intangible (c). An intangible asset has value but no physical form. Brand recognition (item 1) is intangible: people pay more for a trusted name. Intellectual property (item 3), such as patents, copyrights and trademarks, is intangible. A mailing list of clients (item 4) is intangible: it is information that brings in business. Item 2 is wrong: inventory means goods in stock, raw material, half-made goods or finished products, so it is a tangible asset you can touch and count.
Notice why this matters: in modern firms like tech companies, most value lies in intangibles such as software, data and brands, not machines. This makes them harder to value, tax and lend against.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.