UPSC Prelims PYQs with explanations
Real questions from official papers, mapped to syllabus topics. Attempt each one; the answer and the reason appear instantly.
Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music ?
Answer (d) & explanation
Dheera Shankarabharanam matches Raga Bilawal (d). Bilawal is the Hindustani thaat with all seven notes natural (shuddha), the same scale as the Western major scale. Its Carnatic twin is Dheera Shankarabharanam, the 29th melakarta. Option (a) is wrong: Nat Bhairavi matches Asavari. Option (b) is wrong: Kamavardhini (Pantuvarali) matches Purvi. Option (c) is wrong: Hanumatodi matches the Hindustani Bhairavi.
Notice the two systems: Hindustani music has ten thaats, classified by V.N. Bhatkhande, while Carnatic music has 72 melakartas, organised by Venkatamakhin. Another easy pair: Kalyan (Yaman) matches Mechakalyani (Kalyani). Trick: match the notes, not the names, since some names, like Bhairavi, mean different scales in the two systems.
Hanumatodi sounds like Todi, but the Carnatic Todi scale is the Hindustani Bhairavi thaat, not Bilawal.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India :
- I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure.
- II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings.
- III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.
Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ?
- 1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.
- 2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.
- 3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Answer (b) & explanation
Relationships 1 and 2 are correct (b). Sagarmala (2015, Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways) aims at port-led development. Relationship 1 is right: growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, plus better global port rankings, is evidence that it works. Relationship 2 is right: Sagarmala 2.0 builds on the same aim with innovation and shipbuilding, linked to Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047. Relationship 3 is wrong: building on an aim is not contradicting it. So options (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the four pillars: port modernisation, port connectivity, port-led industrialisation and coastal community development. Also related: Maritime India Vision 2030 and Amrit Kaal Vision 2047. Vizhinjam and Vadhavan are big new ports.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India ?
- 1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets
- 2. T-90 MK-III Tanks
- 3. Akula Class Submarine
Select the answer using the code given below :
Answer (a) & explanation
The Su-30MKI and T-90 are made in India (a). Item 1 is right: HAL Nashik builds the Su-30MKI under licence from Russia. Item 2 is right: the Heavy Vehicles Factory, Avadi (Tamil Nadu) builds the T-90 "Bhishma" tank under licence. Item 3 is wrong: the Akula-class is a Russian nuclear-powered attack submarine; India only leased one, INS Chakra, and never built it. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice India's own submarine line: the Arihant-class nuclear ballistic missile submarines are built at Visakhapatnam, and the Kalvari (Scorpène) class at Mazagon Dock, Mumbai, with French help. Indigenous platforms like the Tejas fighter and Arjun tank support the Make in India defence push.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) :
- 1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology.
- 2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators.
- 3. Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (a) & explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (a). Statement 1 is right: both the global MPI (UNDP and Oxford's OPHI) and NITI Aayog's national MPI use the Alkire-Foster method, across health, education and standard of living. Statement 2 is right: NITI Aayog's MPI has 12 indicators. Statement 3 is wrong: the global MPI has 10 indicators; NITI Aayog added two of its own, maternal health and bank account, so these are not common. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the headline: NITI Aayog estimated that about 24.8 crore people escaped multidimensional poverty between 2013-14 and 2022-23. A person is MPI-poor if deprived in at least one-third of the weighted indicators.
statement 3 names the exact two indicators that make NITI's index different. They are extras, not shared ones.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
When SARS-CoV-2 was first detected in 2019, it was a truly novel virus for the world. At that time, no one in the world had been exposed to SARS-CoV-2 or had specific immunity against it. In contrast, people across the world have been exposed to HMPV for decades and the virus is well-studied. HMPV and SARS-CoV-2 belong to two very different virus families with fundamentally different characteristics and epidemiology, with strong seasonality seen in HMPV, unlike SARS-CoV-2. Both viruses cause different severity of symptoms, particularly over the long term, and the affected population segments do not fully overlap. In general, HMPV causes milder illness with deaths being very rare and with no long-term post-viral symptoms.
Which of the following statements reflect the logical and rational inferences that can be drawn from the passage?
- 1. HMPV has, historically, had longer documentation of studies when compared with SARS-CoV-2.
- 2. The two viruses are different from each other and this results in markedly different outcomes amongst those affected.
- 3. Long-term impacts of the two viruses are dissimilar and this is an important differentiator between them.
- 4. One of the common factors between the two viruses is seasonal specificity.
Select the answer using the code given below.
Answer (b) & explanation
Inferences 1, 2 and 3 follow (b). Step 1: HMPV has been around "for decades" and is "well-studied", while SARS-CoV-2 was new in 2019. So HMPV has a longer record of study (1). Step 2: the viruses are "fundamentally different" and cause different severity, so outcomes differ (2). Step 3: severity differs "particularly over the long term"; HMPV has no long-term after-effects. So long-term impact is a key difference (3). Statement 4 fails: seasonality is seen in HMPV "unlike SARS-CoV-2", so it is a difference, not a common factor. Options (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Tip: "unlike" signals a difference. Do not turn it into a similarity.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
If x and y are two digits and the number 4x5y790 is divisible by 11, then what is the remainder, if x + y is divided by 11?
Answer (d) & explanation
1. Test for 11: add every second digit, add the others, and the two totals must differ by 0 or 11.
2. Digits 4, x, 5, y, 7, 9, 0. First group: 4 + 5 + 7 + 0 = 16. Second group: x + y + 9.
3. So 16 − (x + y + 9) = 7 − (x + y) must be 0 or −11. That gives x + y = 7 or x + y = 18.
4. 7 ÷ 11 leaves 7, and 18 ÷ 11 also leaves 7. Either way the remainder is 7.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct ?
- 1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley.
- 2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.
- 3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct (b). Statement 1 is right: Amaravati stands on the lower Krishna valley in Andhra Pradesh. Statement 3 is right: its fine limestone reliefs shaped later South Indian art, and pieces in its style reached Sri Lanka and South-east Asia. Statement 2 is wrong: Amaravati was one of the largest stupas in India, bigger than the Great Stupa at Sanchi, not second to it. So options (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the patrons: the Satavahanas and later the Ikshvakus, who built Nagarjunakonda. Many Amaravati panels were taken to the British Museum and Chennai museum. Andhra Pradesh's new capital is named Amaravati after it.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India’s space programme :
- 1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.
- 2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world’s first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine.
- 3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (c). Statement 1 is right: IN-SPACe (2020) is the single-window, autonomous body under the Department of Space that authorises private space activity. Statement 2 is right: Agnikul's Agnibaan SOrTeD (May 2024) flew on the world's first single-piece 3D-printed semi-cryogenic engine. Statement 3 is wrong: Skyroot builds its own Vikram rockets; it does not make fuel for ISRO's GSLV. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice Skyroot's milestone: Vikram-S (2022) was India's first privately built rocket to reach space. The Indian Space Policy, 2023 opened all space activities to private firms, and 100% FDI is allowed in parts of the sector. NSIL is ISRO's commercial arm.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct ?
- 1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India.
- 2. It is India’s first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Answer (c) & explanation
Both statements are correct (c). Statement 1 is right: DHRUV64, announced in December 2025 by C-DAC, is the third chip fabricated under the Digital India RISC-V (DIR-V) programme, after THEJAS32 and THEJAS64. Statement 2 is right: it is India's first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice the technology: RISC-V is an open-source instruction set, so India can design chips without paying licence fees to owners of ARM or x86 designs. DHRUV64 targets 5G equipment, industrial automation, automotive and IoT uses. Next in line are the Dhanush chips. The India Semiconductor Mission (2021) supports the wider fab and assembly ecosystem.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
‘Kalagram’, the cultural village set up at the Maha Kumbh Mela, unfolded as a mosaic of India’s diverse regions, each represented by seven meticulously crafted ‘Sanskriti Angans’—stepping through the grand portal was like entering another world. These thematic zones, inspired by iconic temples like the Dakshineshwar Kali Temple and the Brahma Mandir, were treasure troves of regional artistry. Bengal’s Pattachitra paintings, Assam’s bamboo crafts, Tamil Nadu’s Thanjavur paintings, and Madhya Pradesh’s tribal sculpture—all were showcased in these living galleries where 230 master artisans breathed life into them using age-old techniques, their hands shaping India’s ancient history into creations to behold.
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
The incorrect statement is (a): paintings from four States are not mentioned. Step 1: the passage names only two paintings: Pattachitra of Bengal and Thanjavur paintings of Tamil Nadu. Step 2: Assam is mentioned for bamboo crafts and Madhya Pradesh for tribal sculpture, not paintings. So four States appear, but only two for paintings: (a) is wrong. Step 3: (b) matches "like entering another world"; (c) matches "living galleries"; (d) matches thematic zones "inspired by iconic temples". These are correct, so they are not the answer.
Tip: in "not correct" questions, check each detail against the text. Count carefully when an option gives a number.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, or the JJ Act, 2015 allows for the possibility for trying adolescents above 16 as adults if they are accused of committing a heinous offence. A heinous offence is one with a minimum punishment of seven years. Offences such as culpable homicide and causing death by negligence, which are common in drunken driving cases, are not heinous offences because they do not have a prescribed minimum punishment. The JJ Act, amended in 2021, now categorises an offence that has no minimum sentence, but has a maximum sentence of seven years or more as a serious offence which nonetheless, in the opinion of activists, does not merit the transfer of a case to the adult criminal justice system.
Which of the following conclusions is/are valid?
- 1. Only a ‘serious’ offence as categorised by the revised JJ Act, justifies the transfer of a case to the adult judicial system.
- 2. The JJ Act, 2021, categorises an offence as a serious offence based on the maximum sentence it carries, rather than on the minimum sentence.
Select the answer using the code given below.
Answer (b) & explanation
Only conclusion 2 is valid (b). Step 1: the passage says the 2021 amendment treats an offence with no minimum sentence but a maximum of seven years or more as a "serious offence". So the label depends on the maximum, not the minimum (2). Step 2: conclusion 1 says only a serious offence justifies transfer to the adult system. But the passage links transfer to heinous offences (minimum seven years), and activists say a serious offence "does not merit" transfer. So 1 fails. Step 3: options (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Tip: keep legal categories apart: heinous (minimum 7 years) versus serious (no minimum, maximum 7+ years). The JJ Act, 2015, allows children aged 16–18 accused of heinous offences to be tried as adults after assessment.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following three statements, namely S1, S2 and S3:
S1. Protecting the environment is an existential exigency for humans, given the impact of environmental degradation on climate change.
S2. Scientific consensus has not been achieved with regard to the extent of the contribution of human intervention to climate change.
S3. Environmental activism includes climate alarmism and other extremist points of view that often become the focus of climate change deniers.
Which of the following relationships based on the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1. S3 is a counterpoint to S1
- 2. S3 is unconnected to S1 and S2
- 3. S2 could be the reason for S3
Select the answer using the code given below.
Answer (d) & explanation
Only relationship 3 is correct (d). Step 1: relationship 1: S3 says some environmental activism is extreme and gets targeted by deniers. That does not argue against S1 (protecting the environment is vital). So S3 is not a counterpoint to S1. Step 2: relationship 2 says S3 is unconnected to S1 and S2. But S3 is linked to S2. Step 3: relationship 3: since scientists have not agreed on how much humans cause climate change (S2), there is room for both alarmism and denial (S3). So S2 could be a reason for S3. Options (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Tip: a counterpoint must oppose the main claim. A statement about how a debate is conducted is not opposition to the cause itself.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information :
- 1. It has an antecedent drainage system.
- 2. It flows through three countries.
- 3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation.
- 4. It does not form distributaries.
Select the answer from the following :
Answer (c) & explanation
The river is the Sutlej (c). Clue 1: the Sutlej rises near Rakshastal in Tibet and cuts across the Himalaya at Shipki La, so it is antecedent, older than the mountains it crosses. Clue 2: it flows through China, India and Pakistan. Clue 3: it feeds Bhakra and the Punjab canals. Clue 4: as a tributary joining the Chenab, it has no delta. Options (a) and (b) are wrong: the Brahmaputra and Indus end in deltas with distributaries. Option (d) is wrong: the Teesta rises in Sikkim, not Tibet.
Notice other antecedent rivers: the Indus and Brahmaputra, which cut deep gorges. The Sutlej is part of the Indus Waters Treaty "eastern rivers", given to India.
Brahmaputra and Indus also rise in Tibet, cross three countries and are antecedent. Statement 4 is the only one that separates them.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India :
- 1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
- 2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
- 3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Answer (c) & explanation
Only one statement is correct (c). Statement 3 is right: an unstarred question gets a written answer, so no supplementary question can follow. Statement 1 is wrong: unstarred questions get written, not oral, answers. Statement 2 is wrong: a starred question, marked with an asterisk, gets an oral answer on the floor, and supplementaries may follow. Statements 1 and 2 swap the two types. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice the third type: a short notice question is on a matter of urgent public importance, asked with less than ten days' notice and answered orally. Question Hour is usually the first hour of a sitting, followed by Zero Hour, an Indian innovation not found in the Rules of Procedure.
a clean swap of definitions. Remember: the star is for the spoken answer on the floor.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct ?
Answer (d) & explanation
Statement (d) is not correct (d). Under UPI, money moves between bank accounts; the deposit is a liability of the bank. The Digital Rupee (e₹) is like a currency note in digital form, a direct liability of the RBI, not of users or banks. Option (a) is correct: UPI is a payment system, while the e-rupee is sovereign currency. Option (b) is correct: an e-rupee transfer moves value from wallet to wallet with no separate settlement. Option (c) is correct: e-rupee wallet transactions do not appear in bank statements.
Notice the legal base: the RBI Act was amended in 2022 to let the RBI issue a CBDC. Pilots began that year in wholesale (e₹-W) and retail (e₹-R) forms.
a "not correct" question. Look for the statement that puts the RBI's liability on someone else.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
A pattern formed by two characters a and b is repeated more than once in the following string :
× b × a × a × × a × a × bab
What is × × in the 7th and 8th positions from the left in the above string?
Answer (d) & explanation
Positions 7 and 8 are bb (d). Step 1: the string has 15 places, so try a block of 5 letters repeated three times: (× b × a ×)(a × × a ×)(a × b a b). Step 2: read each column across the three blocks. Position 1: ×, a, a → a. Position 2: b, ×, × → b. Position 3: ×, ×, b → b. Position 4: a, a, a → a. Position 5: ×, ×, b → b. Every known letter fits, so the block is abbab. Step 3: places 7 and 8 are the 2nd and 3rd letters of the second block: b, b. Options (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Tip: for repeating patterns, try block sizes that divide the total length. Stack the blocks and fill each column from the known letters.
a block of 3 fails: the 2nd column would need both b and a.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
X travels 6 km on a bicycle with average speeds of 5 km per hour, 10 km per hour and 4 km per hour during the first 1 km, the next 2 km and the remaining 3 km, respectively. Y travels the same distances with average speeds of 4 km per hour, 10 km per hour and 5 km per hour, respectively. How many minutes early will Y complete the journey if both X and Y start at the same time?
Answer (d) & explanation
Y finishes 6 minutes earlier (d). Step 1: time = distance ÷ speed. X: 1 km at 5 km/h = 12 min; 2 km at 10 km/h = 12 min; 3 km at 4 km/h = 45 min. Total 69 min. Step 2: Y: 1 km at 4 km/h = 15 min; 2 km at 10 km/h = 12 min; 3 km at 5 km/h = 36 min. Total 63 min. Step 3: 69 − 63 = 6 minutes. Options (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Tip: work in minutes: time (min) = distance ÷ speed × 60. Y wins because Y is faster over the longer last stretch.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons ?
Answer (a) & explanation
The rate helped remittances and India's creditworthiness (a). The Hilton-Young Commission (1926) fixed the rupee at 1s 6d, against the 1s 4d Indian business wanted. A dearer rupee made the Home Charges and other remittances to Britain cheaper to pay in rupees and kept India's credit good in London. Option (c) is wrong: Indian exporters, cotton included, lost out, since a dear rupee makes exports costly. Option (b) is wrong: helping Indian importers was not the aim. Option (d) is wrong: the issue was the sterling rate, not gold.
Notice the nationalist anger: Purshotamdas Thakurdas wrote a dissent, and the "ratio controversy" fed economic nationalism. The commission also proposed a central bank, leading to the RBI (1935).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid) :
- 1. It is an epiphytic orchid.
- 2. The species is endemic to North-east India.
- 3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct (b). Statement 1 is right: the foxtail orchid grows on tree trunks and branches, using the tree only for support, so it is epiphytic, not a parasite. Statement 3 is right: it is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and of Assam, where it is the kopou phool, worn in Bihu dances. Statement 2 is wrong: it is not endemic; it grows across South and South-East Asia. So options (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the North-East's orchid wealth: Arunachal alone has over 600 orchid species, and Sikkim's state flower, the Noble Dendrobium, is also an orchid. The Tipi Orchid Research Centre is in Arunachal. All wild orchids trade under CITES Appendix II.
it is famous in the North-east, but "endemic" means found nowhere else.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation :
- 1. The ‘Colombo Process’ is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus.
- 2. The ‘Abu Dhabi Dialogue’ is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility.
- 3. The ‘Global Forum for Migration and Development’, created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct (c). Statement 2 is right: the Abu Dhabi Dialogue (2008) is a voluntary, non-binding forum of Asian labour-origin and destination countries on contractual labour mobility. Statement 3 is right: the Global Forum on Migration and Development (GFMD) grew from Kofi Annan's proposal in 2006 and its outcomes are non-binding. Statement 1 is wrong: the Colombo Process (2003) is also non-binding; "binding decisions" makes it false. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice India's stake: it is the world's largest receiver of remittances, over $125 billion a year, much of it from the Gulf. India is a member of both the Colombo Process and the Abu Dhabi Dialogue. The eMigrate portal protects Indian workers abroad.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.