Chapter 10 · Topic 10.3 · Prelims + Mains3 of 3

Industry: Chapter test

Key points

  • Doing Business: India 63rd (DB2020); discontinued September 2021; B-READY replaced it.
  • IIP August 2026: 8.0% (base 2022-23).
  • Core eight: refinery products carry the most weight.

Prelims box: facts and traps

  • CGSS: notified October 2022; replaced by S.O. 2046(E) of 8 May 2025.
  • SISFS: S.O. 414(E), 21 January 2021, ₹945 crore from 1 April 2021.
  • Trap (Prelims 2012): textiles is not a core industry.

Ease of doing business

Quick answerIndia rose to 63rd in the World Bank’s Doing Business 2020 before the report ended in 2021. Industrial output (IIP) grew 8.0% in August 2026.

Ease of doing business means how simply a person can start a shop or factory and get permits.

PointDetail
World Bank Doing BusinessIndia rose to 63rd (DB2020); the report was discontinued in September 2021
ReplacementWorld Bank’s Business Ready (B-READY) assessment
DomesticBusiness Reform Action Plan for States (DPIIT); National Single Window System
DecriminalisationJan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023; Jan Vishwas Act, 2026
LawsIBC (2016), Commercial Courts Act (2015), labour codes

India’s Ease of Doing Business ranking was declared by the World Bank (Prelims 2016). Of its sub-indices, the one that did not exist was Maintenance of law and order (Prelims 2019).

Asked by UPSCUPSC Prelims 2016 · GS Paper I · Q37

India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following has declared that ranking?

  1. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)
  2. World Economic Forum
  3. World Bank
  4. World Trade Organization (WTO)
Show answer

Answer: (c) · UPSC official key

Asked by UPSCUPSC Prelims 2019 · GS Paper I · Q77

Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’?

  1. Maintenance of law and order
  2. Paying taxes
  3. Registering property
  4. Dealing with construction permits
Show answer

Answer: (a) · UPSC official key

What UPSC asks: Prelims: 63rd. Mains: B-READY. Next likely angle: Jan Vishwas.

Industrial corridors and industrial growth

IIP (Index of Industrial Production) is a monthly thermometer for factories, mines and power.

Indicator / schemeDetailStatus / source
IIP growth, August 20268.0% (manufacturing 9.0%, electricity 12.3%, mining −5.6%)Quick estimate, MoSPI, base 2022-23 = 100
IIP level, August 2026123.3 (114.2 in August 2025)Quick estimate; will be revised
Eight core industriesCoal, crude oil, natural gas, refinery products, fertilisers, steel, cement, electricityOffice of the Economic Adviser, DPIIT
Industrial corridorsDMIC (first), Chennai–Bengaluru, Amritsar–Kolkata and others under NICDCNational Industrial Corridor Programme
Industrial smart cities12 new nodes approved (August 2024)Cabinet decision

Cement, fertilisers, natural gas and refinery products are core industries; textiles is not (Prelims 2012: 1, 2, 3 and 4 only). In the old series asked in 2015, the highest weight went to Electricity generation. In the 2011-12 series, refinery products carried the most.

Asked by UPSCUPSC Prelims 2012 · GS Paper I · Q39

In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries? 1. Cement 2. Fertilizers 3. Natural gas 4. Refinery products 5. Textiles Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

  1. 1 and 5 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer

Answer: (c) · UPSC official key

Asked by UPSCUPSC Prelims 2015 · GS Paper I · Q8

In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight?

  1. Coal production
  2. Electricity generation
  3. Fertilizer production
  4. Steel production
Show answer

Answer: (b) · UPSC official key

Mains 2018: What is the significance of Industrial Corridors in India? They offer plug-and-play infrastructure along freight corridors, cluster benefits and smart cities. Mains 2017 asked to Account for the failure of manufacturing sector in achieving the goal of labour-intensive exports.

Asked by UPSCUPSC Mains 2018 · GS Paper I · Q16 · 15 marks

What is the significance of Industrial Corridors in India? Identifying industrial corridors, explain their main characteristics.

Asked by UPSCUPSC Mains 2017 · GS Paper III · Q2 · 10 marks

Account for the failure of manufacturing sector in achieving the goal of labour-intensive exports. Suggest measures for more labour-intensive rather than capitalintensive exports.

What UPSC asks: Prelims: IIP and the core eight. Next likely angle: DMIC.

Mains box: analysis and answer points

  • Mains 2018: industrial corridors.
  • Mains 2017: labour-intensive exports.

Practice

Practice MCQs (8)

Q1 · Battle IAS practice

The Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS) of the Government of India is primarily meant to

Answer (c) & explanation

Young start-ups rarely have the fixed assets or long cash-flow records that banks ask for as security. The CGSS answers this by having the Credit Guarantee Fund for Startups, managed by NCGTC, promise to cover a large share of a lender's loss if a DPIIT-recognised start-up defaults. With that cover, banks, eligible NBFCs and SEBI-registered AIFs can extend collateral-free working capital, term loans and venture debt. The start-up must not be in default or classified as an NPA. The lender pays an annual guarantee fee to the fund. The scheme neither buys shares nor insures deposits; deposit insurance is DICGC's role, and equity support comes through the Fund of Funds. Interest subsidies for micro and small enterprises belong to other schemes in the MSME domain.

Q2 · Battle IAS practice

The Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional Industries (SFURTI), for which the KVIC and the Coir Board are among the nodal agencies, mainly aims at

Answer (d) & explanation

SFURTI, started in 2005-06 and revamped in 2014-15, organises traditional industries and artisans into clusters. It funds common facility centres, raw material banks, design and skill development and marketing support, so that artisans can compete and earn more. Credit guarantees, export insurance and quality certification belong to other schemes.

Q3 · Battle IAS practice

With reference to the Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS), consider the following statements:
1. It was notified in January 2021 with a corpus of ₹945 crore.
2. A start-up can apply only if it was incorporated not more than ten years before the date of application.
3. A start-up can receive up to ₹20 lakh as a grant for proof of concept or prototype development and up to ₹50 lakh through convertible debentures or debt-linked instruments.
4. At the time of application, the shareholding of Indian promoters in the start-up should be at least 51 per cent.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Answer (d) & explanation

SISFS was notified by DPIIT as S.O. 414(E) on 21 January 2021, with ₹945 crore to be disbursed from 1 April 2021 through selected incubators. It targets the seed gap, the stage after an idea and before VC money. Hence its age test is much stricter than the DPIIT definition: the start-up must be DPIIT-recognised and incorporated not more than two years before applying, so statement 2's ten-year window is wrong. The support has two windows: up to ₹20 lakh as a grant for proof of concept, prototypes or product trials, released against milestones, and up to ₹50 lakh for market entry, commercialisation or scaling through convertible debentures or debt-linked instruments. Other conditions include a technology-led business model, no more than ₹10 lakh of support from other government schemes, and Indian promoters holding at least 51 per cent.

Q4 · Battle IAS practice

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Under the Startup India Seed Fund Scheme, funds reach start-ups through selected incubators rather than directly from DPIIT. Statement-II: An incubator seeking funds under the scheme must ordinarily have been operational for at least two years on the date of application.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Answer (b) & explanation

SISFS uses incubators as intermediaries. An Experts Advisory Committee constituted by DPIIT selects incubators and sanctions each one a grant of up to ₹5 crore, released in instalments; the incubator then evaluates start-ups through its own seed management committee and disburses the grant or debt to them. This design draws on the incubator's mentoring and due-diligence capacity, so Statement-I is correct. Statement-II is also a real eligibility rule: the incubator must be a legal entity, operational for at least two years, with seating for at least 25 individuals and at least five start-ups physically incubated. But Statement-II is a quality filter for incubators; it does not explain why the scheme routes money through incubators at all. The reason lies in leveraging incubators' screening and mentoring. Both are true, and II does not explain I.

Q5 · Battle IAS practice

Under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups notified in May 2025, which one of the following lending or investing institutions is NOT eligible to become a member institution?

Answer (d) & explanation

Para 5 of S.O. 2046(E) (8 May 2025) lists three classes of eligible lending or investing institutions: scheduled commercial banks and financial institutions; RBI-registered NBFCs with an external rating of BBB and above from an RBI-accredited agency and a minimum net worth of ₹100 crore; and SEBI-registered AIFs, which is how venture debt funds come in. The two NBFC conditions are cumulative. An NBFC rated BBB with ₹150 crore of net worth meets both. One rated BB, which is below investment grade, with only ₹50 crore of net worth fails both tests, so it cannot join. The scheme also says that if a member NBFC is later downgraded below BBB, it gets no fresh guarantee cover until its rating is upgraded again, which shows the rating test applies continuously, not just at entry.

Q6 · Battle IAS practice

With reference to the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS) as revised in May 2025, consider the following statements:
1. The guarantee fund is managed by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC).
2. The maximum guarantee cover per borrower was raised from ₹10 crore to ₹20 crore.
3. For loans up to ₹10 crore, the guarantee covers 85 per cent of the amount in default.
4. Only scheduled commercial banks can act as lending institutions under the scheme.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Answer (a) & explanation

The CGSS was first notified in October 2022 and replaced by S.O. 2046(E) of 8 May 2025. It guarantees loans that lenders give to DPIIT-recognised start-ups without collateral. The Credit Guarantee Fund for Startups is managed by NCGTC, a company set up in March 2014. The 2025 revision raised the ceiling per borrower from ₹10 crore to ₹20 crore and set cover at 85 per cent of the amount in default for loans up to ₹10 crore and 75 per cent above that. It also cut the annual guarantee fee to 1 per cent for start-ups in the 27 Champion Sectors. Lenders are not limited to banks: scheduled commercial banks and financial institutions, RBI-registered NBFCs rated BBB and above with net worth of at least ₹100 crore, and SEBI-registered AIFs are all eligible member institutions.

Q7 · Battle IAS practice

The term 'premature deindustrialisation', often used in discussions on India's growth path, refers to

Answer (b) & explanation

The idea, developed by the economist Dani Rodrik (2015), notes that in many developing countries the share of manufacturing in employment and output has started to fall at income levels far below those at which Britain, the United States or East Asian economies began to deindustrialise. India's manufacturing share has stayed well below East Asian peaks while services grew faster, so workers moved from farms largely to services and construction. This is why policy since 2011 (National Manufacturing Policy, Make in India, PLI) has tried to raise the manufacturing share.

Q8 · Battle IAS practice

In the All-India Index of Industrial Production with base year 2022-23, which one of the following carries the second-highest weight after manufacturing taken as a whole?

Answer (d) & explanation

The sectoral weights in the 2022-23 series are Manufacturing 76.062, Mining and quarrying 11.053, Electricity and gas supply 10.865, and Water supply, sewerage and waste management 2.020. Mining therefore stays second, but only narrowly ahead of electricity and gas, whose weight rose from about 8 in the old series because gas supply was added and renewable power is now a separate sub-index. Basic metals, at 9.198, is the largest group within manufacturing, not a separate sector.

0 / 0 correct

Prelims PYQs on this topic (7)

UPSC Prelims 2022 · GS Paper I

In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers ?

Answer (c) & explanation

The Labour Bureau compiles this data (c). The Labour Bureau, under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, with offices at Shimla and Chandigarh, collects statistics on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs. It also compiles the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW), used to set dearness allowance. Option (a) is wrong: the Central Statistics Office, now part of the NSO, handles national accounts and GDP. Option (b) is wrong: DPIIT compiles the Wholesale Price Index and the index of eight core industries. Option (d) is wrong: NTMIS tracked technical manpower supply.

Notice that the Labour Bureau now also runs the Quarterly Employment Survey. The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), by contrast, comes from the NSO.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2021 · GS Paper I

With reference to casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements :

  • 1. All casual workers are entitled for Employees Provident Fund coverage.
  • 2. All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment.
  • 3. The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account.

Which of the above statements are correct?

Answer (b) & explanation

Statements 2 and 3 are correct (b). Statement 1 is wrong: the EPF scheme covers only establishments with 20 or more workers, and members earning within the wage ceiling (₹15,000 a month), so not every casual worker is covered. Statement 2 is right: labour laws on working hours and overtime apply to all workers, including casual ones. Statement 3 is right: the Code on Wages, 2019 lets the government notify that an establishment or industry must pay wages only by cheque or into the worker's bank account.

Notice the four labour codes: Wages (2019), Industrial Relations, Social Security, and Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (2020). They merged 29 central labour laws and came into force in November 2025. The e-Shram portal registers unorganised workers.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2021 · GS Paper I

In India, the central bank's function as the 'lender of last resort' usually refers to which of the following?

  • 1. Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources
  • 2. Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis
  • 3. Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Answer (b) & explanation

Only statement 2 describes the lender of last resort (b). As lender of last resort, the RBI gives emergency funds to a basically sound bank that faces a sudden shortage of cash, so that panic does not spread to other banks and the system stays stable. The Marginal Standing Facility is one such window. Statement 1 is wrong: the RBI does not lend directly to trade or industry bodies. Statement 3 is wrong: lending to governments through ways and means advances is its role as banker to the government, not as lender of last resort.

Notice the idea came from Walter Bagehot's Lombard Street (1873): lend freely to solvent banks, against good collateral, at a penalty rate.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2017 · GS Paper I

With reference to 'Quality Council of India (QCI)', consider the following statements :

  • 1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry.
  • 2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

Answer (c) & explanation

Both statements are correct (c). The Quality Council of India, set up in 1997, is an autonomous body formed jointly by the Government of India and industry bodies ASSOCHAM, CII and FICCI (1). It works as India's national accreditation system, through bodies such as NABL (laboratories), NABH (hospitals) and NABCB. Its chairman is appointed by the Prime Minister on the industry's recommendation (2). DPIIT (formerly DIPP) is its nodal department.

QCI also runs ZED certification for MSMEs and checks cleanliness rankings under Swachh Survekshan. Notice how it differs from BIS: QCI accredits the bodies that check quality, while BIS sets standards and issues product marks.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2015 · GS Paper I

In India, the steel production industry requires the import of

Answer (c) & explanation

Indian coal has a high ash content, so steel plants import most of their coking (metallurgical) coal, mainly from Australia, and also from the USA, Russia and others (c). Saltpetre (a) is used for explosives and fertilisers, and rock phosphate (b) for phosphatic fertilisers; neither is needed for steel, so (d) also fails.

India is the world's second-largest steel producer and aims for 300 million tonnes of capacity by 2030 under the National Steel Policy 2017. Notice how this import dependence links steel, trade and energy security, which is why coal washeries and Mission Coking Coal matter.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2013 · GS Paper I

In the context of Indian economy, ‘Open Market Operations’ refers to

Answer (c) & explanation

Purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI is correct (c). Open Market Operations are the RBI's buying and selling of government securities in the market to manage liquidity. Buying securities pays out money and adds liquidity; selling them absorbs money. (a) is wrong: banks borrowing from the RBI happens through the repo window or Marginal Standing Facility. (b) is wrong: bank lending to industry is ordinary credit, not OMO. (d) fails because (c) is correct.

Notice the variants: 'Operation Twist' (2019–20) bought long-term and sold short-term bonds at the same time, and G-SAP (2021) was a pre-announced bond-buying programme. OMOs are part of quantitative monetary tools, with CRR and SLR. Trap: (a) is a liquidity tool too, but not OMO.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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Mains PYQs on this topic (1)

Write an answer

In 150 words, explain the significance of Industry with one recent example.

Flashcards (4)

India's last Doing Business rank?

63rd (DB2020).

Doing Business replaced by?

B-READY.

IIP growth August 2026?

8.0% (quick estimate).

First industrial corridor?

Delhi–Mumbai (DMIC).

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