Chapter 7 · Topic 7.3 · Prelims + Mains3 of 3
Taxation: Tax reforms and tax policy
Key points
- Kelkar Task Force (2002): simpler direct taxes; proposed GST.
- Faceless assessment and Taxpayers' Charter: 13 August 2020.
- Vivad se Vishwas: 2020 and 2024 (from 1 October 2024).
- Tax expenditure: revenue given up through exemptions and deductions.
2 PYQs 2009–2018
Prelims box: facts and traps
- GST compensation: notional 14% annual growth over 2015-16 revenue for five years (July 2017 to June 2022).
- Equalisation levy: 2% levy ended from 1 August 2024; 6% levy from 1 April 2025 (Finance Act, 2025).
- Trap: N.K. Singh did not head the 2017 direct tax task force; Arbind Modi and then Akhilesh Ranjan convened it. N.K. Singh chaired the FRBM Review Committee and the 15th Finance Commission.
- Trap: the CBDT and CBIC are not created by the tax laws; Article 279A creates the GST Council, not the CBIC.
Tax reforms and tax policy
A good tax system is like a good toll road: everyone pays a fair amount, the rules are clear, and nobody is stuck in a queue arguing with the collector. India’s reforms since 2002 have tried to build such a system.
| Reform | Detail |
|---|---|
| Kelkar Task Force (2002) | Simplify direct taxes; proposed a GST |
| Black Money Act, 2015 | Tax and penalty on undisclosed foreign income and assets |
| Faceless assessment (2020) | Taxpayers’ Charter; no face-to-face contact |
| Vivad se Vishwas (2020, 2024) | Settlement of direct tax disputes |
| Income-tax Act, 2025 | Shorter, plain-language law; tax year concept |
| Tax expenditure | Revenue given up through exemptions and deductions (reported in a Budget statement) |
Simpler laws
The Kelkar Task Force (2002) asked for simpler direct taxes and first proposed a GST. That idea came true on 1 July 2017. For direct taxes, the old Income-tax Act, 1961 had grown long and confusing after decades of amendments. A task force on a new direct tax law worked from 2017 to 2019. The result was the Income-tax Act, 2025, which came into force on 1 April 2026. It is shorter, uses plain language and replaces the old “previous year” and “assessment year” with a single “tax year”.
Less contact, fewer disputes
On 13 August 2020, the Prime Minister launched the “Transparent Taxation – Honouring the Honest” platform. It brought in faceless assessment, where a computer assigns cases to officers in other cities, so the taxpayer never meets the officer, and a Taxpayers’ Charter listing taxpayers’ rights. Faceless appeals followed on 25 September 2020. The aim was to cut harassment and corruption.
Disputes are another problem. Lakhs of crores of rupees stay locked in tax cases. The Vivad se Vishwas schemes, meaning “from dispute to trust”, let taxpayers settle pending direct tax cases by paying the tax, with relief on interest and penalty. The first came in 2020; the second, under the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024, opened on 1 October 2024.
Tax expenditure
Tax expenditure means revenue the Government gives up through exemptions and deductions. It is “spending” done through the tax code instead of the Budget. Example: if a family deducts the interest on its home loan, it pays less tax. The Government has, in effect, spent money to support housing. The Budget reports these costs in a separate statement.
Mains 2013 asked: What is the meaning of the term ‘tax expenditure’? Housing loan interest deduction is a classic example. It supports home-buying and the construction sector, but it narrows the tax base and mostly helps those who can borrow.
What is the meaning of the term ‘tax expenditure’? Taking housing sector as an example, discuss how it influences the budgetary policies of the government.
In a recession the most likely step is an Increase in expenditure on public projects (Prelims 2021), alongside tax relief and lower interest rates.
Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession?
- Cut in tax rates accompanied by increase in interest rate
- Increase in expenditure on public projects
- Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction of interest rate
- Reduction of expenditure on public projects
Show answer
Answer: (b) · UPSC official key
What UPSC asks: Prelims: the Kelkar Task Force and the Black Money Act, 2015. Mains: faceless assessment and tax expenditure. Next likely angle: the Income-tax Act, 2025.
Mains box: analysis and answer points
- Mains 2013: tax expenditure with the housing example.
- Reform themes: simplicity, certainty, less litigation, fewer exemptions.
Practice
Practice MCQs (8)
The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) and the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) are statutory bodies constituted under the
Answer (b) & explanation
Both boards were constituted under the Central Boards of Revenue Act, 1963, which split the earlier Central Board of Revenue into two. They function in the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance: the CBDT deals with income tax and other direct taxes, while the CBIC (renamed from the Central Board of Excise and Customs in 2018, after GST) deals with customs, central excise, CGST and IGST. The income tax and customs laws give powers to these boards, but they do not create them; Article 279A creates the GST Council, not the CBIC.
The concept of 'Significant Economic Presence', introduced into Indian income tax law by the Finance Act, 2018, is primarily meant to
Answer (a) & explanation
Traditional tax rules tax a non-resident's business profits only if it has a business connection or permanent establishment, usually a physical presence, in the source country. Digital firms can earn large revenues from Indian users without any office here. The Finance Act, 2018 therefore said that a Significant Economic Presence in India, measured by thresholds of transactions or users (as later notified), will itself constitute a business connection. Its practical reach depends on tax treaties, which generally still require a permanent establishment; that is why India also used the equalisation levy and supported the Pillar One talks.
Consider the following pairs of persons and the tax reform bodies they headed:
1. Raja J. Chelliah : Tax Reforms Committee (1991)
2. Vijay Kelkar : Task Forces on Direct and Indirect Taxes (2002)
3. Parthasarathi Shome : Tax Administration Reform Commission (2013)
4. N.K. Singh : Task Force on drafting a new Direct Tax law (2017)
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Answer (c) & explanation
Pairs 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The Chelliah Committee (1991) laid the base of post- reform tax policy: lower and fewer rates, a wider base and a move towards VAT. The Kelkar Task Forces (2002) recommended simplifying direct taxes and a comprehensive tax on goods and services. The Tax Administration Reform Commission under Parthasarathi Shome (2013- 14) focused on taxpayer services and administrative structure. Pair 4 is wrong: the task force on a new direct tax law (2017-19) was convened first by Arbind Modi and then by Akhilesh Ranjan; N.K. Singh chaired the FRBM Review Committee and the Fifteenth Finance Commission.
Consider the following statements regarding India's 'Equalisation Levy':
1. It was introduced through a separate chapter of the Finance Act, 2016, outside the Income- tax Act.
2. The 2% levy on consideration received by e-commerce operators does not apply to consideration received on or after 1 August 2024.
3. The 6% levy on payments to non-residents for online advertisement services was abolished with effect from 1 April 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
All three are correct. The Equalisation Levy was created by Chapter VIII of the Finance Act, 2016 as a standalone levy, deliberately outside the Income-tax Act so that it would not be treated as an income tax under tax treaties. It began at 6% on online advertisement payments to non-residents; the Finance Act, 2020 added a 2% levy on e-commerce operators. Following the OECD two-pillar talks and trade concerns, the 2% levy was ended from 1 August 2024 and the 6% levy from 1 April 2025 by the Finance Act, 2025.
With reference to the 'new tax regime' for individuals under Indian income tax law, consider the following statements:
1. Since the financial year 2023-24, the new regime has been the default regime, and an individual has to opt out of it to use the old regime.
2. As per the Finance Act, 2025, a resident individual opting for the new regime pays no income tax on a taxable income of up to ₹12 lakh because of the rebate available.
3. Most deductions linked to savings and investments, such as those for life insurance premiums and Public Provident Fund deposits, are not available under the new regime.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
All three are correct. The Finance Act, 2023 made the concessional regime the default from FY 2023-24; taxpayers who want the old regime with its deductions must opt out. The Finance Act, 2025 revised the slabs and raised the rebate so that a resident individual with taxable income up to ₹12 lakh pays nil tax under the new regime (₹12.75 lakh for a salaried person after the ₹75,000 standard deduction); Budget 2026-27 left these slabs unchanged. The trade-off for lower rates is that most savings-linked deductions of the old regime are not allowed.
With reference to the Protocol amending the India–Mauritius Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement, signed in 2016, consider the following statements:
1. It gave India the right to tax capital gains arising from the transfer of shares of an Indian company acquired by a Mauritian resident on or after 1 April 2017.
2. Investments in shares made before 1 April 2017 were protected from this change through grandfathering.
3. It terminated the Agreement, and India now applies its domestic law alone to Mauritian investors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Under the original treaty, capital gains on Indian shares held by Mauritian residents were taxable only in Mauritius, which had no capital gains tax; this made Mauritius the largest route for foreign investment and raised concerns about round-tripping and treaty shopping. The 2016 Protocol shifted to source-based taxation of such gains for shares acquired from 1 April 2017, with grandfathering of earlier investments and a concessional 50% rate during a transition period up to March 2019. Statement 3 is wrong: the Agreement continues in force; only some articles were amended.
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021 provided that no tax demand shall be raised, on the basis of the retrospective amendment of 2012, for indirect transfers of Indian assets made before 28 May 2012. Statement-II: The retrospective amendment of 2012 was made after the Supreme Court, in January 2012, had ruled in favour of Vodafone in its indirect transfer case.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer (b) & explanation
Both statements are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. In January 2012 the Supreme Court held that Vodafone's purchase of a Cayman Islands company that indirectly owned Hutchison's Indian business was not taxable in India. The Finance Act, 2012 then amended the law retrospectively (from 1961) to tax such indirect transfers, leading to demands on Vodafone and Cairn and to international arbitration that India lost. The 2021 Act withdrew demands for transfers before 28 May 2012 and offered refunds without interest to restore tax certainty and investor confidence. Statement-II gives the origin of the 2012 amendment, not the reason for its withdrawal in 2021.
Consider the following statements regarding compensation to States under GST:
1. The GST (Compensation to States) Act, 2017 assured States compensation calculated on an annual growth of 14% in their subsumed tax revenue over the base year 2015-16, for five years.
2. The GST compensation cess was levied on all taxable supplies of goods and services at a uniform rate.
3. The compensation cess on tobacco products ceased from 1 February 2026, when a revised Central excise duty on tobacco and a separate cess on pan masala manufacturing capacity came into force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The 2017 Compensation Act guaranteed States a notional 14% annual growth over 2015-16 revenue for five years (July 2017 to June 2022). The cess was then continued to repay loans taken to pay compensation during the pandemic; after the GST rate rationalisation of September 2025 it survived only on tobacco items, and ended on 1 February 2026, when the Central Excise (Amendment) Act, 2025 and the Health Security se National Security Cess Act, 2025 came into force. Statement 2 is wrong: the cess was levied only on specified luxury and demerit goods such as tobacco, pan masala, aerated drinks, coal and motor vehicles, at different rates.
0 / 0 correct
Prelims PYQs on this topic (2)
With reference to India's decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
- 1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
- 2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the "Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements".
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong because the 6% equalisation levy (2016) was introduced through a separate chapter of the Finance Act, 2016, not the Income Tax Act. The Indian business paying a foreign firm like Google or Facebook for online ads deducted it. Statement 2 is wrong because the levy is not an income tax, so the foreign firm cannot claim credit for it under a DTAA in its home country. This is exactly why it was designed outside the Income Tax Act.
A 2% levy on e-commerce was added in 2020 and dropped in 2024. The 6% levy on ads ended in April 2025. Notice the reason: India is moving towards the OECD Two-Pillar global tax deal and is also under US trade pressure.
statement 2 sounds fair. Tax treaties cover taxes on income; the levy was kept outside the Income Tax Act for exactly this reason.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following is *not* a feature of “Value Added Tax” ?
Answer (d) & explanation
Statement (d) is not a feature of VAT, so it is the answer. Value Added Tax, introduced in most Indian States from April 2005, was a multi-point, destination-based tax (a). It taxed the value added at each stage of production and distribution, with input tax credit for tax already paid, avoiding the cascading 'tax on tax' (b). Its burden was finally borne by the consumer (c). But VAT was a State subject that replaced State sales tax; the Centre only facilitated it through the Empowered Committee of State Finance Ministers. So (d) reverses the roles.
Notice what came next: VAT was subsumed into the Goods and Services Tax (GST) from 1 July 2017, after the 101st Amendment (2016), with the GST Council under Article 279A. GST 2.0 reforms in September 2025 moved to mainly two slabs, 5% and 18%. Trap: VAT was a State tax, with the Centre as facilitator.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Write an answer
In 150 words, explain the significance of Taxation with one recent example.
Flashcards (3)
Direct tax example?
Income tax.
What replaced assessment year?
Tax year.
Tax expenditure?
Revenue forgone through exemptions.
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