UPSC Prelims PYQs with explanations
Real questions from official papers, mapped to syllabus topics. Attempt each one; the answer and the reason appear instantly.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’ bank. This would imply which of the following?
- 1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
- 2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
- 3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
All three are correct (d). As the bankers' bank, the RBI does for banks what a bank does for its customers. Banks keep part of their deposits with it as cash reserves (CRR) (1). It lends to banks in need, through the repo window, the Marginal Standing Facility, and as lender of last resort (2). It advises and guides banks on monetary and credit matters (3). So options (a), (b) and (c) leave out real functions.
Notice the other roles: issuer of currency, banker to the government, regulator of banks and NBFCs, and manager of foreign exchange. The RBI was set up in 1935 on the Hilton Young Commission's advice and nationalised in 1949. Trap: all three are textbook features of a central bank.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of
Answer (c) & explanation
Worship of nature and Yajnas is correct (c). Rigvedic gods were forces of nature: Indra (rain and thunder, the most praised), Agni (fire), Varuna (water and cosmic order), Surya, Vayu and others. They were worshipped through yajnas (fire sacrifices) and hymns, mainly for cattle, children and victory. (a) and (d) are wrong: Bhakti, loving devotion to a personal god, came much later. (b) is wrong: there were no temples or images in early Vedic religion.
Notice the later shift: in the later Vedic period, Prajapati, Vishnu and Rudra rose, rituals grew elaborate, and priests gained power, which the Upanishads, Buddhism and Jainism later questioned. Trap: image worship is a much later feature of Hinduism.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
Invasions of exotic species into new geographic areas sometimes occur naturally and without human agency. However, human actions have increased this trickle to a flood. Human-caused introductions may occur either accidentally as a consequence of human transport, or intentionally but illegally to serve some private purpose or legitimately to procure some hoped-for public benefit by bringing a pest under control, producing new agricultural products or providing novel recreational opportunities. Many introduced species are assimilated into communities without much obvious effect. However, some have been responsible for dramatic changes to native species and natural communities. For example, the accidental introduction of the brown tree snake Boiga irregularis into Guam, an island in the Pacific, has through nest predation reduced 10 endemic forest bird species to the point of extinction.
One of the major reasons for the world’s great biodiversity is the occurrence of centers of endemism so that similar habitats in different parts of the world are occupied by different groups of species that happen to have evolved there. If every species naturally had access to everywhere on the globe, we might expect a relatively small number of successful species to become dominant in each biome. The extent to which this homogenization can happen naturally is restricted by the limited powers of dispersal of most species in the face of the physical barriers that exist to dispersal. By virtue of the transport opportunities offered by humans, these barriers have been breached by an ever-increasing number of exotic species. The effects of introductions have been to convert a hugely diverse range of local community compositions into something much more homogeneous.
It would be wrong, however, to conclude that introducing species to a region will inevitably cause a decline in species richness there. For example, there are numerous species of plants, invertebrates and vertebrates found in continental Europe but absent from the British Isles (many because they have so far failed to recolonize after the last glaciations). Their introduction would be likely to augment British biodiversity. The significant detrimental effect noted above arises where aggressive species provide a novel challenge to endemic biotas ill-equipped to deal with them.
What can be the impact of invasion of exotic species on an ecosystem ?
- 1. Erosion of endemic species.
- 2. Change in the species composition of the community of the ecosystem.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Answer (c) & explanation
Both 1 and 2 are correct (c). Step 1: the brown tree snake brought to Guam reduced 10 endemic bird species to near extinction. That is erosion of endemic species (1). Step 2: the passage says introductions have turned diverse local communities into 'something much more homogeneous'. That is a change in species composition (2). Step 3: since both are directly supported, (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Tip: 'can be the impact' asks what is possible, not what always happens. The passage also says some species fit in without much effect, but one clear example of harm is enough to show what invasions can do. Match each statement to a fact or example in the passage.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Examine the following statements:
- 1. None but the rich can afford air travel.
- 2. Some of those who travel by air become sick.
- 3. Some of those who become sick require treatment.
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
Answer (d) & explanation
(d) is correct. Step 1: 'None but the rich can afford air travel' means only the rich travel by air. So every air traveller is rich: (d). Step 2: (b) is wrong: only some air travellers become sick, not all. Step 3: (a) and (c) are wrong: nothing says all rich people travel or fall sick; the statements are about air travellers, a part of the rich. So (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Tip: 'None but X' = 'only X' = 'everyone who does this is X'. It never means every X does it. Draw the 'air travellers' circle inside the 'rich' circle and the answer is clear; the 'some… sick' circle only overlaps.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used
- 1. in the production of plastic foams
- 2. in the production of tubeless tyres
- 3. in cleaning certain electronic components
- 4. as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct (c). Chlorofluorocarbons were used as blowing agents for plastic foams (1), as solvents to clean electronic circuit boards (3), as aerosol propellants (4) and as refrigerants. Statement 2 is wrong: CFCs are not used to make tubeless tyres. So (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice the treaties: the Vienna Convention (1985) and Montreal Protocol (1987) phased out CFCs, and the Kigali Amendment (2016) now phases down their substitutes, HFCs, which are powerful greenhouse gases; India must cut HFCs from 2032. The ozone hole over Antarctica is expected to heal by about 2066. World Ozone Day is 16 September. Trap: tyres sound industrial but have no CFC link.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern?
- 1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
- 2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.
- 3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.
- 4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct per UPSC's key (a), but item 4 is arguable. The sea absorbs CO₂ and forms carbonic acid, lowering pH and the carbonate that organisms need to build calcium carbonate shells and skeletons. This harms calcareous phytoplankton such as coccolithophores (1), coral reefs (2), and animals such as oysters and sea urchins with planktonic larval stages (3). Item 4: some plankton release dimethyl sulphide, which seeds clouds, so acidification may indirectly affect clouds; UPSC treated this as not established.
Notice the numbers: surface ocean pH has fallen from about 8.2 to 8.1 since industrialisation, about a 30% rise in acidity. A 2025 study said ocean acidification has crossed its planetary boundary. Trap: 'acid' does not mean the sea is actually acidic; it stays alkaline.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called ‘rare earth metals’. Why?
- 1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export.
- 2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country.
- 3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct (c). In 2010, China, which then produced over 90% of the world's rare earths, cut export quotas (1), just as demand was rising for magnets, phones, batteries, wind turbines and electric vehicles (3). Statement 2 is wrong: rare earths are found in many countries, including India (monazite sands), the USA, Brazil, Vietnam and Russia. So (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice the recent turn: China imposed export controls on several rare earths and magnets in April 2025 and widened them in October 2025, hurting automakers. India launched a National Critical Mineral Mission (2025) and a scheme for rare earth permanent magnets (November 2025); IREL handles domestic output. Trap: 'rare' refers to concentration, not scarcity.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
Today’s developing economies use much less energy per capita than developed countries such as the United States did at similar incomes, showing the potential for lower-carbon growth. Adaptation and mitigation need to be integrated into a climate-smart development strategy that increases resilience, reduces the threat of further global warming, and improves development outcomes. Adaptation and mitigation measures can advance development, and prosperity can raise incomes and foster better institutions. A healthier population living in better-built houses and with access to bank loans and social security is better equipped to deal with a changing climate and its consequences. Advancing robust, resilient development policies that promote adaptation is needed today because changes in the climate, already begun, will increase even in the short term.
The spread of economic prosperity has always been intertwined with adaptation to changing ecological conditions. But as growth has altered the environment and as environmental change has accelerated, sustaining growth and adaptability demands greater capacity to understand our environment, generate new adaptive technologies and practices, and diffuse them widely. As economic historians have explained, much of humankind’s creative potential has been directed at adapting to the changing world. But adaptation cannot cope with all the impacts related to climate change, especially as larger changes unfold in the long term.
Countries cannot grow out of harm’s way fast enough to match the changing climate. And some growth strategies, whether driven by the government or the market, can also add to vulnerability — particularly if they overexploit natural resources. Under the Soviet development plan, irrigated cotton cultivation expanded in water-stressed Central Asia and led to the near disappearance of the Aral Sea, threatening the livelihoods of fishermen, herders and farmers. And clearing mangroves — the natural coastal buffers against storm surges — to make way for intensive farming or housing development, increases the physical vulnerability of coastal settlements, whether in Guinea or in Louisiana.
What does low-carbon growth imply in the present context ?
- 1. More emphasis on the use of renewable sources of energy.
- 2. Less emphasis on manufacturing sector and more emphasis on agricultural sector.
- 3. Switching over from monoculture practices to mixed farming.
- 4. Less demand for goods and services.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Answer (a) & explanation
Only point 1 is correct (a). Step 1: the passage says developing economies use 'much less energy per capita' than rich countries did at similar incomes, 'showing the potential for lower-carbon growth'. Growing with less carbon means relying more on cleaner, renewable energy: 1 fits. Step 2: point 2 (less manufacturing, more farming) and point 3 (mixed farming instead of monoculture) are never discussed. Step 3: point 4 (less demand for goods and services) is wrong: low-carbon growth still means growing, not shrinking demand. So (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Tip: 'low-carbon growth' has two parts: keep growing, but emit less carbon. Reject any option that gives up growth itself.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements:
- 1. All X-brand cars parked here are white.
- 2. Some of them have radial tyres.
- 3. All X-brand cars manufactured after 1986 have radial tyres.
- 4. All cars are not X-brand.
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
Answer (b) & explanation
(b) is correct. Step 1: statement 1 says all X-brand cars parked here are white. Statement 2 says some of them (these parked X-brand cars) have radial tyres. Step 2: so some white X-brand cars with radial tyres are parked here: (b) follows. Step 3: (a) is wrong: the statements cover only X-brand cars; other white or non-white cars may be parked too. (c) is wrong: nothing says non-X-brand cars cannot have radial tyres. (d) is wrong: no data on how many cars were made before 1986. So (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Tip: watch what 'them' refers to. Linking statement 2 to statement 1 gives the answer directly.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
You are competing with your batch-mate for a prestigious award to be decided based on an oral presentation. Ten minutes are allowed for each presentation. You have been asked by the committee to finish on time. Your friend, however, is allowed more than the stipulated time period. You would...
Answer (a) & explanation
(a) and (d) are both correct (UPSC accepted both; no negative marking). Step 1: you are being treated unequally: your time is limited, your rival's is not. Step 2: (a) a complaint to the chairperson is the proper, formal way to raise discrimination. The key also accepts (d), a protest, as a firm stand against unfairness. Step 3: (b) refusing to hear the committee shuts out dialogue. (c) withdrawing gives up your chance and leaves the unfairness in place.
Tip: for these interpersonal items, pick the response that is lawful, honest and fixes the real problem through proper channels. Avoid options that give in, run away from duty or act without hearing the facts.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?
- 1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India
- 2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation
- 3. The Independent Labour Party
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct (b). Dr B.R. Ambedkar founded the Independent Labour Party (1936), which won seats in the 1937 Bombay elections (3), and the All India Scheduled Castes Federation (1942) (2). He also planned the Republican Party of India, founded after his death in 1957. Statement 1 is wrong: the Peasants and Workers Party of India (1947, Maharashtra) was founded by Keshavrao Jedhe, Shankarrao More and others who broke away from the Congress. So (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice his other work: the Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha (1924), the Mahad Satyagraha (1927), the newspaper 'Mooknayak' (1920), and his conversion to Buddhism on 14 October 1956 at Nagpur. Trap: the PWP was a Maharashtra party of the same era.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs
Answer (d) & explanation
The infrared part is correct (d). Carbon dioxide lets visible sunlight pass, but it absorbs infrared (heat) radiation, mainly the long-wave radiation given off by the warmed Earth, and some of the infrared in sunlight. It then re-radiates this heat in all directions, including back to the surface: the greenhouse effect. (a) is wrong: CO₂ does not absorb water vapour. (b) is wrong: ultraviolet is absorbed mainly by ozone in the stratosphere. (c) is wrong: CO₂ is transparent to most visible light.
Notice the numbers: CO₂ has risen from about 280 ppm before industrialisation to over 420 ppm, and 2024 was the first calendar year above 1.5°C of warming. Water vapour is the largest greenhouse gas, and methane is far stronger per molecule. Trap: the question says 'solar radiation', but the key effect is on the Earth's own infrared.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following :
- 1. Black-necked crane
- 2. Cheetah
- 3. Flying squirrel
- 4. Snow leopard
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
Answer (b) & explanation
Items 1, 3 and 4 are correct (b). The black-necked crane breeds in Ladakh and winters in Arunachal's Tawang area and Bhutan (1). Flying squirrels live in the Western Ghats, the Himalaya and the north-east (3). The snow leopard lives in the high Himalaya of Ladakh, Himachal, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal (4). Item 2 is wrong: the Asiatic cheetah was declared extinct in India in 1952, so it was not naturally found in 2012. So (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the update: African cheetahs were brought to Kuno (MP) from September 2022 under Project Cheetah, and some were moved to Gandhi Sagar in 2025. India's first snow leopard survey (2023) counted about 718. Trap: today's cheetahs are introduced, not native.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Four men are waiting at Delhi airport for a Mumbai flight. Two are doctors and other two are businessmen. Two speak Gujarati and two speak Tamil. No two of the same profession speak the same language. Two are Muslims and two are Christians. No two of the same religion are of the same profession, nor do they speak same language. The Tamil speaking doctor is Christian.
- 1. The Christian-businessman speaks Gujarati.
- 2. The Gujarati-speaking doctor is a Muslim.
Which of the above statements is/are correct conclusion/conclusions?
Answer (c) & explanation
Both statements are correct (c). Step 1: no two of the same profession speak the same language, so each pair (doctors, businessmen) has one Gujarati and one Tamil speaker. Step 2: the Tamil-speaking doctor is Christian. The two doctors cannot share a religion, so the Gujarati doctor is Muslim: statement 2 is true. Step 3: the second Christian must be a businessman, and two Christians cannot speak the same language. Since one Christian speaks Tamil, the other speaks Gujarati: statement 1 is true. So (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Tip: write the four people in a 2×2 table (doctor/businessman × Gujarati/Tamil) and fill religions using the 'no two the same' rules.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
In a typical Western liberal context, deepening of democracy invariably leads to consolidation of ‘liberal values’. In the Indian context, democratization is translated into greater involvement of people not as ‘individuals’ which is a staple to liberal discourse, but as communities or groups. Individuals are getting involved in the public sphere not as ‘atomized’ individuals but as members of primordial communities drawn on religious or caste identity. Community-identity seems to be the governing force. It is not therefore surprising that the so-called peripheral groups continue to maintain their identities with reference to the social groups (caste, religion or sect) to which they belong while getting involved in the political processes despite the fact that their political goals remain more or less identical. By helping to articulate the political voice of the marginalized, democracy in India has led to ‘a loosening of social strictures’ and empowered the peripherals to be confident of their ability to improve the socio-economic conditions in which they are placed. This is a significant political process that had led to a silent revolution through a meaningful transfer of power from the upper caste elites to various subaltern groups within the democratic framework of public governance.
According to the passage, what does “deepening of democracy” mean in the Western context ?
Answer (c) & explanation
(c) is correct. Step 1: the passage contrasts the West with India. In India people take part 'not as individuals, which is a staple to liberal discourse, but as communities'. In the West, therefore, deepening democracy means more involvement of people as 'atomized' individuals. Step 2: (a) is wrong: group and caste identities describe the Indian pattern, not the Western one. Step 3: (b) is wrong because it is too general: 'greater involvement of people' fits both India and the West and misses the key word 'individuals'. Since (c) is right, (d) fails.
Tip: in contrast passages, the answer for one side is usually the opposite of what is said about the other side.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
- 2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
- 3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
None of the statements is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong: Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu and Kashmir send members to the Rajya Sabha, elected by their legislative assemblies. Statement 2 is wrong: election disputes are decided by the High Courts through election petitions, with appeal to the Supreme Court; the Election Commission does not adjudicate them. Statement 3 is wrong: under Article 79, Parliament consists of the President and the two Houses. So (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Notice the details: Rajya Sabha has 245 seats, 233 elected and 12 nominated by the President. Disputes over the President's and Vice-President's elections go straight to the Supreme Court (Article 71). Trap: the President is part of Parliament though not a member of either House.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?
- 1. Directive Principles of State Policy
- 2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
- 3. Fifth Schedule
- 4. Sixth Schedule
- 5. Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
All five are correct (d). Education appears across the Constitution. Directive Principles: Article 45 (early childhood care and education) and Article 46 (education of weaker sections) (1). Local bodies: education is listed in the Eleventh Schedule for panchayats and cultural and educational aspects in the Twelfth for municipalities (2). The Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule govern tribal areas, and district councils under the Sixth may set up primary schools (3, 4). The Seventh Schedule places education in the Concurrent List (entry 25) (5).
Notice the shift: the 42nd Amendment (1976) moved education from the State to the Concurrent List, and the 86th Amendment (2002) made it a fundamental right under Article 21A. Trap: Schedules seem administrative, but each touches education.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Under which of the following circumstances may ‘capital gains’ arise?
- 1. When there is an increase in the sales of a product
- 2. When there is a natural increase in the value of the property owned
- 3. When you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct (b). A capital gain is the rise in value of a capital asset, such as land, a house, shares, gold or art, over what was paid for it, realised when the asset is sold. A natural rise in the value of property (2) and a painting that gains value as it becomes popular (3) both give capital gains. Statement 1 is wrong: higher sales of a product raise business income or profit, not a capital gain. So (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the tax rules: gains are short-term or long-term depending on holding period. From July 2024, LTCG tax on listed equity rose to 12.5% with an exemption of ₹1.25 lakh, and indexation was removed for most assets. Trap: revenue growth is not asset appreciation.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
Education, without a doubt, has an important functional, instrumental and utilitarian dimension. This is revealed when one asks questions such as ‘what is the purpose of education ?’. The answers, too often, are ‘to acquire qualifications for employment/upward mobility’, ‘wider/higher (in terms of income) opportunities’, and ‘to meet the needs for trained human power in diverse fields for national development’. But in its deepest sense education is not instrumentalist. That is to say, it is not to be justified outside of itself because it leads to the acquisition of formal skills or of certain desired psychological – social attributes. It must be respected in itself. Education is thus not a commodity to be acquired or possessed and then used, but a process of inestimable importance to individuals and society, although it can and does have enormous use-value. Education then, is a process of expansion and conversion, not in the sense of converting or turning students into doctors or engineers, but the widening and turning out of the mind — the creation, sustenance and development of self-critical awareness and independence of thought. It is an inner process of moral – intellectual development.
What do you understand by the ‘instrumentalist’ view of education ?
Answer (a) & explanation
'Functional and utilitarian' is correct (a). Step 1: the passage says education has a 'functional, instrumental and utilitarian dimension' and lists the usual answers: jobs, upward mobility, higher income and trained manpower. That is the instrumentalist view: education valued as a tool for something outside itself. Step 2: (b) 'fulfil human needs' is too vague; it could fit any view. Step 3: (c) training the intellect and (d) moral development describe the author's deeper view, which he sets against the instrumentalist one. So (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Tip: 'instrumental' means 'used as an instrument or tool'. When a passage contrasts two views, check which side each option belongs to before choosing.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
Most champions of democracy have been rather reticent in suggesting that democracy would itself promote development and enhancement of social welfare — they have tended to see them as good but distinctly separate and largely independent goals. The detractors of democracy, on the other hand, seemed to have been quite willing to express their diagnosis of what they see as serious tensions between democracy and development. The theorists of the practical split — “Make up your mind : do you want democracy, or instead, do you want development ?” — often came, at least to start with, from East Asian countries, and their voice grew in influence as several of these countries were immensely successful — through the 1970s and 1980s and even later — in promoting economic growth without pursuing democracy.
To deal with these issues we have to pay particular attention to both the content of what can be called development and to the interpretation of democracy (in particular to the respective roles of voting and of public reasoning). The assessment of development cannot be divorced from the lives that people can lead and the real freedom that they enjoy. Development can scarcely be seen merely in terms of enhancement of inanimate objects of convenience, such as a rise in the GNP (or in personal incomes), or industrialization — important as they may be as means to the real ends. Their value must depend on what they do to the lives and freedom of the people involved, which must be central to the idea of development.
If development is understood in a broader way, with a focus on human lives, then it becomes immediately clear that the relation between development and democracy has to be seen partly in terms of their constitutive connection, rather than only through their external links. Even though the question has often been asked whether political freedom is “conducive to development”, we must not miss the crucial recognition that political liberties and democratic rights are among the “constituent components” of development. Their relevance for development does not have to be established indirectly through their contribution to the growth of GNP.
According to the passage, why is a serious tension perceived between democracy and development by the detractors of democracy ?
Answer (b) & explanation
(b) is correct. Step 1: the detractors' view came from East Asian countries that were 'immensely successful… in promoting economic growth without pursuing democracy'. That success is why they saw tension between the two. Step 2: (a) is wrong: seeing democracy and development as separate goals is the view of the champions of democracy, not the detractors. Step 3: (c) is wrong: the passage never says non-democracies grow faster or more successfully than democracies; it makes no comparison. Since (a) and (c) fail, (d) fails too.
Tip: when a passage presents two groups, tag each idea with its group. Many wrong options quote one side's view as the other side's.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.