UPSC Prelims PYQs with explanations
Real questions from official papers, mapped to syllabus topics. Attempt each one; the answer and the reason appear instantly.
'Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana' has been launched for
Answer (c) & explanation
PMJDY (August 2014) is the National Mission for Financial Inclusion (c). It offers a zero-balance bank account for every household, with a RuPay debit card, accident insurance and an overdraft facility. It is not a housing-loan scheme (a); that role belongs to PM Awas Yojana. It does not mainly promote women's SHGs (b), which is the work of DAY-NRLM, and it is not a cash-aid scheme for particular communities (d).
With over 55 crore accounts, Jan Dhan became the base of the JAM trinity (Jan Dhan, Aadhaar, Mobile) for Direct Benefit Transfer. Notice how a simple bank account became the pipe for welfare delivery.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
The area known as ‘Golan Heights’ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to
Answer (b) & explanation
The Golan Heights are in the Middle East (b). Israel took this plateau from Syria in the 1967 war and annexed it in 1981, a move most of the world does not recognise. It overlooks the Sea of Galilee and is a key source of water. It has nothing to do with Central Asia (a), South-East Asia (c) or Central Africa (d).
UN peacekeepers of UNDOF, including Indian troops at times, patrol the ceasefire line. The USA recognised Israeli sovereignty in 2019. Notice how high ground and water make some small territories hugely important in geopolitics.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
'Basel III Accord' or simply 'Basel III', often seen in the news, seeks to
Answer (b) & explanation
Basel III seeks to improve the banking sector's ability to absorb financial and economic stress and to strengthen risk management (b). Agreed in 2010 by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision at the Bank for International Settlements, after the 2008 crisis, it asks banks to hold more and better capital, plus buffers, a leverage ratio and liquidity ratios such as the LCR. Option (a) describes the CBD, (c) the Kyoto Protocol and (d) the Montreal Protocol.
India's capital adequacy norm of 11.5% including the conservation buffer is stricter than the Basel minimum. Notice how strong banks protect the whole economy.
Basel is also linked to a convention on hazardous waste. Basel III on its own means banking.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1. It is a Public Limited Government Company.
- 2. It is a Non-Banking Financial Company.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer (c) & explanation
Both are correct (c). IREDA (1987), under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, is a public limited government company (1). It is registered with the RBI as a Non-Banking Financial Company that lends to renewable energy and energy-efficiency projects (2).
IREDA was listed on the stock exchanges in 2023 and became a Navratna company in 2024. It helps finance India's goal of 500 GW of non-fossil capacity by 2030. Notice how specialised lenders bridge the gap between policy targets and actual projects on the ground.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
Individuals, groups and leaders who promote human development operate under strong institutional, structural and political constraints that affect policy options. But experience suggests broad principles for shaping an appropriate agenda for human development. One important finding from several decades of human development experience is that focusing exclusively on economic growth is problematic. While we have good knowledge about how to advance health and education, the causes of growth are much less certain and growth is often elusive. Further, an unbalanced emphasis on growth is often associated with negative environmental consequences and adverse distributional effects. The experience of China, with its impressive growth record, reflects these broader concerns and underlines the importance of balanced approaches that emphasize investments in the non-income aspects of human development.
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :
- 1. Higher economic growth is essential to ensure reduction in economic disparity.
- 2. Environmental degradation is sometimes a consequence of economic growth.
Which of the above is/are valid assumption/assumptions ?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only assumption 2 is valid (b). Step 1: test assumption 2. The passage says "an unbalanced emphasis on growth is often associated with negative environmental consequences". So environmental harm is sometimes a result of growth. 2 holds. Step 2: test assumption 1. It says higher growth is essential to reduce disparity. The passage says growth often brings "adverse distributional effects", meaning it can widen disparity. So 1 contradicts the passage. Options (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Tip: the word "sometimes" in assumption 2 matches "often" in the passage. Mild words that match the passage's tone are usually safe. A strong claim like "essential" needs strong support.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Usha runs faster than Kamala, Priti runs slower than Swati, Swati runs slower than Kamala. Who is the slowest runner ?
Answer (b) & explanation
Priti is the slowest (b). Step 1: write each clue as a comparison. Usha > Kamala. Swati > Priti. Kamala > Swati. Step 2: link them into one line, fastest to slowest: Usha > Kamala > Swati > Priti. Step 3: the slowest is Priti. Options (a), (c) and (d) are faster than Priti.
Tip: change "runs slower than" into ">" pointing the right way. "Priti runs slower than Swati" means Swati > Priti. Turning every clue into the same symbol avoids mistakes. Then join the chains at the shared name.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments.
- 2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
- 3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct (b). IUCN (1948, Gland) is a membership union of governments and NGOs, not a UN organ, though it has UN observer status, so statement 1 is wrong. IUCN runs field projects worldwide and publishes the Red List (2 correct). CITES (1973) is legally binding on its Parties, but it does not replace national laws: each country must pass its own law to apply it (3 correct).
In India, CITES is applied through the Wildlife (Protection) Act, amended in 2022 to add a schedule of CITES species. Notice how global treaties work only through domestic law.
Being a UN observer does not make IUCN a UN organ.
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Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
- 2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Article 53 vests the executive power of the Union in the President, who exercises it on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. The Civil Services Board, which advises on senior postings and transfers, is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary, not the Prime Minister.
The PM chairs the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, which approves top appointments. The Supreme Court in T.S.R. Subramanian (2013) asked for Civil Services Boards to curb arbitrary transfers. Notice the gap between formal and real executive in a parliamentary system.
the PM holds real power, so statement 1 feels true. The Constitution vests it formally in the President.
Traps like this come back in new clothes. The PYQ Book collects all of them, topic by topic, so none catch you twice. Try the free sample
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to an organization known as ‘BirdLife International’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations.
- 2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organization.
- 3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct (c). BirdLife International is a global partnership of national conservation organisations; its Indian partner is the BNHS (1). It identifies Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas (IBAs), sites vital for birds and wider biodiversity (3). Statement 2 is wrong: the biodiversity hotspot idea came from the British ecologist Norman Myers in 1988 and was later adopted by Conservation International.
BirdLife is also the Red List authority for birds within IUCN. India has four hotspots: the Himalaya, Indo-Burma, the Western Ghats–Sri Lanka and Sundaland (Nicobar). Notice how birds act as indicators of ecosystem health.
Hotspots are Myers' idea. BirdLife is known for IBAs.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
I must say that, beyond occasionally exposing me to laughter, my constitutional shyness has been of no disadvantage whatever. In fact I can see that, on the contrary, it has been all to my advantage. My hesitancy in speech, which was once an annoyance, is now a pleasure. Its greatest benefit has been that it has taught me the economy of words. I have naturally formed the habit of restraining my thoughts. And I can now give myself the certificate that a thoughtless word hardly ever escapes my tongue or pen. I do not recollect ever having had to regret anything in my speech or writing. I have thus been spared many a mishap and waste of time. Experience has taught me that silence is part of the spiritual discipline of a votary of truth. Proneness to exaggerate, to suppress or modify the truth, wittingly or unwittingly, is a natural weakness of man, and silence is necessary in order to surmount it. A man of few words will rarely be thoughtless in his speech; he will measure every word. We find so many people impatient to talk. There is no chairman of a meeting who is not pestered with notes for permission to speak. And whenever the permission is given the speaker generally exceeds the time-limit, asks for more time, and keeps on talking without permission. All this talking can hardly be said to be of any benefit to the world. It is so much waste of time. My shyness has been in reality my shield and buckler. It has allowed me to grow. It has helped me in my discernment of truth.
The most appropriate reason for the author to be spared many a mishap is that
Answer (a) & explanation
He was spared mishaps because he rarely uttered a thoughtless word (a). Step 1: find the sentence. "A thoughtless word hardly ever escapes my tongue or pen. I do not recollect ever having had to regret anything... I have thus been spared many a mishap." The word "thus" links the mishaps directly to his careful speech. Step 2: test the others. Option (b) is wrong: patience is not mentioned; in fact he criticises impatient talkers. Option (c) is wrong: silence is part of spiritual discipline, but that is not why he was spared mishaps. Option (d) is wrong: being a votary of truth comes later and explains silence, not the mishaps.
Tip: words like "thus", "hence" and "therefore" point back to the cause in the previous sentence.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
The mangroves can shed tons of leaves per acre every year; fungi and bacteria break down this leaf litter and consume it, they then are consumed by tiny worms and crustaceans, which in turn feed small fish, which feed larger fish and birds and crocodiles.
Which among the following is the most logical inference of the above statement ?
Answer (c) & explanation
Mangroves play a crucial role in some coastal food chains (c). Step 1: see what the passage shows. Mangrove leaf litter feeds fungi and bacteria, which feed worms and crustaceans, then small fish, larger fish, birds and crocodiles. So mangroves start an important food chain. Step 2: one example supports "some" food chains. Step 3: test the others. Option (a) is wrong: "cannot" have food chains without mangroves is too strong. Option (b) is wrong: "all marine ecosystems" goes far beyond. Option (d) is wrong: "largely determined" is not shown.
Tip: one example supports a modest conclusion. Strong words like "cannot", "all" and "largely" need much more evidence.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Two cities A and B are 360 km apart. A car goes from A to B with a speed of 40 km/hr and returns to A with a speed of 60 km/hr. What is the average speed of the car ?
Answer (b) & explanation
The average speed is 48 km/hr (b). Step 1: going from A to B at 40 km/hr takes 360 ÷ 40 = 9 hours. Step 2: coming back at 60 km/hr takes 360 ÷ 60 = 6 hours. Step 3: total distance = 360 + 360 = 720 km. Total time = 9 + 6 = 15 hours. Average speed = 720 ÷ 15 = 48 km/hr. Option (c), 50 km/hr, is the trap: the simple average of 40 and 60. Options (a) and (d) are wrong.
Tip: average speed = total distance ÷ total time, never the simple average of speeds. For equal distances, a shortcut is 2 × a × b ÷ (a + b) = 2 × 40 × 60 ÷ 100 = 48.
50 km/hr is the plain average of 40 and 60. The car spends more time at the slower speed, so the true average is lower.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the use of nano-technology in health sector, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1. Targeted drug delivery is made possible by nanotechnology.
- 2. Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene therapy.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer (c) & explanation
Both are correct (c). Nanoparticles such as liposomes, dendrimers and gold particles can carry drugs straight to diseased cells like tumours, sparing healthy tissue (1). They also act as non-viral carriers of genes in gene therapy (2).
The lipid nanoparticles used in mRNA COVID-19 vaccines apply the same idea, wrapping fragile genetic material to carry it into cells. Nano-based diagnostics can also detect diseases earlier. Notice how a physics idea, the special behaviour of matter at the nanoscale, is reshaping medicine, though safety and toxicity questions remain.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to Indian history, which of the following is/are the essential element/elements of the feudal system?
- 1. A very strong centralized political authority and a very weak provincial or local political authority
- 2. Emergence of administrative structure based on control and possession of land
- 3. Creation of lord-vassal relationship between the feudal lord and his overlord
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct (b). In the debate on early medieval "Indian feudalism", led by historians such as R. S. Sharma, land grants created a ladder of power resting on the control and possession of land (2). Local chiefs called samantas owed service and tribute to their overlord in a lord–vassal relationship (3). Statement 1 is the opposite of feudalism, which means a weak central authority and strong local lords.
Historians like Harbans Mukhia questioned whether European feudalism fits India. Notice how land grants also spread agriculture and Brahmanical culture into new areas.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following countries :
- 1. China
- 2. France
- 3. India
- 4. Israel
- 5. Pakistan
Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?
Answer (a) & explanation
The NPT (1968) recognises as nuclear-weapon states only those that tested before 1 January 1967: the USA, Russia, UK, France and China. So among the options only China and France qualify (a). India, Pakistan and Israel never signed the NPT and, though they have nuclear weapons, fall outside this definition.
These five are also the permanent members of the UN Security Council. India rejects the NPT as discriminatory but follows a no-first-use policy and got the NSG waiver in 2008. Notice how history, not just capability, defines status in this treaty.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. A man had a wife, two sons and two daughters in his family.
- 2. The daughters were invited to a feast and the male members of the family went out to take part in a picnic.
- 3. The man's father did not return from his work.
Which of the following statements is true ?
Answer (b) & explanation
It is likely that the wife was at home (b). Step 1: account for each person. The two daughters went to a feast. The male members (the man and his two sons) went on a picnic. The man's father did not return from work. Step 2: the only person not accounted for is the man's wife. Step 3: but we are not told where she was. She might have stayed home or gone out. So it is only likely, not certain, that she was home. Option (a) is too certain. Option (c) is not supported. Option (d) is wrong: no one else could be home.
Tip: CSAT logic rewards careful wording. If the facts do not settle a point, prefer "likely" or "possibly" over a definite claim.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
A person ordered 5 pairs of black socks and some pairs of brown socks. The price of a black pair was thrice that of a brown pair. While preparing the bill, the bill clerk interchanged the number of black and brown pairs by mistake which increased the bill by 100%. What was the number of pairs of brown socks in the original order ?
Answer (d) & explanation
The original order had 25 brown pairs (d). Step 1: let a brown pair cost ₹1, so a black pair costs ₹3. Step 2: test the options. Try 25 brown pairs. Correct bill: 5 black × 3 + 25 brown × 1 = 15 + 25 = ₹40. Step 3: wrong bill, with the numbers swapped: 25 black × 3 + 5 brown × 1 = 75 + 5 = ₹80. Step 4: ₹80 is double ₹40, a 100% increase. This matches. Options (a), (b) and (c) do not double the bill: for example, 10 brown gives ₹25 and ₹35.
Tip: when an algebra setup seems long, test the options. Give prices simple values like 1 and 3 to keep the arithmetic easy.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent.
- 2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer (a) & explanation
The 14th Finance Commission (chaired by Y. V. Reddy, covering 2015–20) raised the States' share of the divisible pool from 32% to 42%, the biggest jump ever (1 correct). It gave grants only for local bodies, disaster relief and revenue deficits, and deliberately made no sector-specific grants, preferring untied funds, so statement 2 is wrong. The answer is (a).
The 15th Finance Commission (N. K. Singh) set the share at 41% after Jammu and Kashmir became a Union Territory, and the 16th (Arvind Panagariya) covers 2026–31. Notice how Article 280 makes this body the balance wheel of fiscal federalism.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Convertibility of rupee implies
Answer (c) & explanation
Convertibility means the freedom to change rupees into foreign currency and back at market rates (c). Option (a) describes the old gold standard, not convertibility. Option (b) describes a floating exchange rate, a separate idea. Option (d), building a currency market, is not what the term means.
India has had full current account convertibility since August 1994, covering trade, travel and remittances, but only partial capital account convertibility, as advised by the Tarapore committees. Notice how caution here helped India avoid the worst of the 1997 Asian financial crisis.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The winds which blow between 30° N and 60° S latitudes throughout the year are known as westerlies.
- 2. The moist air masses that cause winter rains in North-Western region of India are part of westerlies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only statement 2 is correct (b). The westerlies blow between 30° and 60° latitude in each hemisphere. Statement 1 is wrong because "30° N to 60° S" would stretch across the tropics, where the trade winds blow. Western disturbances, which bring winter rain and snow to north-west India, travel from the Mediterranean region on the westerly jet stream, so they are part of the westerlies.
Their winter rain is vital for the rabi wheat crop of Punjab and Haryana. Notice how a wind belt far away shapes Indian farming, and how the "roaring forties" mark strong westerlies in the south.
Statement 1 changes one letter, N to S, and the band then covers the tropics as well.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.