UPSC Prelims PYQs with explanations
Real questions from official papers, mapped to syllabus topics. Attempt each one; the answer and the reason appear instantly.
Read the passage
Over the last decade, Indian agriculture has become more robust with record production of food grains and oilseeds. Increased procurement, consequently, has added huge stocks of food grains in the granaries. India is one of the world’s top producers of rice, wheat, milk, fruits and vegetables, India is still home to a quarter of all undernourished people in the world. On an average, almost half of the total expenditure of nearly half of the households is on food.
Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?
Answer (a) & explanation
Making the farm-to-fork value chain more efficient is needed to reduce poverty and malnutrition (a). Step 1: the passage notes record harvests and full granaries, yet India has about a quarter of the world's undernourished. So food is grown but not reaching people. Better supply chains are the fix. That is option (a). Step 2: option (b) says higher productivity will automatically end hunger. But output is already high, so that fails. Step 3: option (c) says no further productivity rise is needed, which is not the point. Option (d) relies on more welfare funds, which the passage does not discuss.
Tip: food security means availability, access and use. High production alone covers only the first.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to
Answer (c) & explanation
The Digital Single Market Strategy belongs to the EU (c). The European Commission launched it in 2015 to remove online barriers between member states and extend the single market into the digital economy. Its results include ending mobile roaming charges in 2017, banning unfair geo-blocking, updating copyright rules, and the GDPR (2018) for data protection. It has no link to ASEAN (a), BRICS (b) or the G20 (d).
The EU has since passed the Digital Services Act and the Digital Markets Act to curb Big Tech, as well as the AI Act (2024), the world's first broad AI law. Notice India's version of such rules: the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
- 2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
- 3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (a) & explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (a). The Global Climate Change Alliance was started by the European Union in 2007 (1) and became GCCA+ in 2014. It gives technical and financial support to poor, climate-exposed countries, mainly small island states (SIDS) and least developed countries (LDCs). The aim is to help them build climate change into their development policies and budgets (2), with a focus on adaptation and disaster risk reduction. Statement 3 is wrong because WRI and WBCSD run the GHG Protocol, not the GCCA.
Notice the trap: UPSC mixes up who runs which climate body. Remember these pairs: GCCA belongs to the EU, the CCAC to UNEP with partner countries, REDD+ to the UN or World Bank, and the GHG Protocol to WRI and WBCSD.
The WRI–WBCSD pairing belongs to the GHG Protocol.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents ?
- 1. Service providers
- 2. Data centres
- 3. Body corporate
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
All three must report cyber incidents (d). Under Section 70B of the IT Act, 2000 and the CERT-In Rules, 2013, service providers (1), data centres (2), body corporates (3) and intermediaries must report cyber security incidents to CERT-In (the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team, under MeitY). CERT-In's April 2022 directions set a six-hour reporting deadline. They also require logs to be kept for 180 days, and VPN providers must store user details for five years.
Critical sectors are protected by NCIIPC under Section 70A. Notice the related laws: the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 and its 2025 Rules, which add a duty to report data breaches to the Data Protection Board.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
If there is a policy that 1/3rd of a population of a community has migrated every year from one place to some other place, what is the leftover population of that community after the sixth year, if there is no further growth in the population during this period?
Answer (d) & explanation
The leftover population is 64/729 of the original (d). Step 1: each year one-third leave, so two-thirds stay. The cut applies to the population left that year, not the original. Step 2: after one year, 2/3 remains. After two years, 2/3 × 2/3 = 4/9. Keep multiplying. Step 3: after six years: (2/3)⁶ = 64 ÷ 729 = 64/729. Option (b), 32/243, is (2/3)⁵, five years. Option (a), 16/243, and option (c), 32/729, are mixed-up powers.
Tip: a fixed fraction lost each year works like compound interest in reverse. Multiply by the "staying" fraction once for each year. 2⁶ = 64 and 3⁶ = 729.
(a) and (b) are (2/3)4 and (2/3)5 written over 243. Count six years.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
The IMF has pointed out that the fast growing economies of Asia face the risk of falling into ‘middle-income trap’. It means that average incomes in these countries, which till now have been growing rapidly, will stop growing beyond a point—a point that is well short of incomes in the developed West. The IMF identifies a number of causes of middle-income trap—none of which is surprising—from infrastructure to weak institutions, to less than favourable macroeconomic conditions. But the broad, overall cause, says IMF, is a collapse in the growth of productivity.
Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?
Answer (a) & explanation
Once a country reaches middle income, it risks falling productivity and stagnant incomes (a). Step 1: the passage says incomes stall short of Western levels because of "a collapse in the growth of productivity". That is the middle-income trap, and option (a) states it. Step 2: option (b) says the trap is a general feature of all fast-growing economies. But the passage speaks of a risk, not a rule. Step 3: option (c) says there is no hope at all for Asian economies, which is far too extreme. Option (d), Asian productivity is unsatisfactory, is too broad.
Tip: the "middle-income trap" means a country grows fast to middle income, then stalls. Higher productivity, through skills and innovation, is the way out.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Directions for the following 3 (three) items : Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow.
Eight railway stations A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are connected either by two-way passages or one-way passages. One-way passages are from C to A, E to G, B to F, D to H, G to C, E to C and H to G. Two-way passages are between A and E, G and B, F and D, and E and D.
While travelling from C to H, which one of the following stations must be passed through?
Answer (b) & explanation
Every route from C to H must pass through E (b). Step 1: look at C's exits. The only passage out of C is the one-way passage C to A. Step 2: from A, the only passage out is the two-way passage A to E. Step 3: so every trip from C to H starts C → A → E, and then goes on to H, for example through D. Option (a), G, is not needed. Option (c), D, is used in the usual route, but the question asks what must be passed, and E comes first with no choice. Option (d), F, is not needed.
Tip: draw the stations as dots and the passages as arrows. A station with only one way out decides the route.
D must also be passed (H can be reached only from D), so (c) looks right too; the official answer is (b), as printed.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS) ?
Answer (c) & explanation
State Government employees who join after their State notifies NPS can join (c). The National Pension System, regulated by PFRDA, is open to Indian citizens, resident or non-resident, so (a) is wrong. The age range was 18–60 then and is now 18–70, not 21–55, so (b) is wrong. It is compulsory for Central Government employees joining on or after 1 January 2004, but the Armed Forces are kept out, so (d) is wrong twice over. Each State joins from the date it notifies NPS, so (c) is correct.
The Unified Pension Scheme (UPS), in force from April 2025, now lets central employees under NPS choose an assured pension of 50% of their average last-year basic pay. Notice that some States, such as Rajasthan and Himachal, have gone back to the old pension scheme.
option (d) slips in "including those of Armed Forces". One added group spoils the whole option.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following in respect of 'National Career Service' :
- 1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India.
- 2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). The National Career Service (NCS), launched in July 2015, is run by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, through the Directorate General of Employment, not by DoPT, so statement 1 is wrong. Statement 2 is wrong because it is not limited to uneducated youth. It is an online portal and a network of Model Career Centres that link all job seekers with employers. It also offers career counselling, skill information and job fairs, and it modernised the old employment exchanges.
Notice the related platforms: e-Shram for unorganised workers, Skill India Digital Hub, and the Employment Linked Incentive scheme from the 2024 Budget, which encourages formal hiring.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
- 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
- 2. Abolition of untouchability
- 3. Protection of the interests of minorities
- 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1 and 4 are correct (c). The Right against Exploitation is made up of Article 23, which bans human trafficking, begar and forced labour (1), and Article 24, which bans employing children under 14 in factories, mines and hazardous work (4). Statement 2 is wrong because the abolition of untouchability is Article 17, under the Right to Equality. Statement 3 is wrong because the interests of minorities are protected under Articles 29–30, the Cultural and Educational Rights.
These rights also apply against private persons. Notice the laws that carry them out: the Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976 and the Child Labour Amendment Act, 2016, which bans all work below 14 and hazardous work for those aged 14–18.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
In a democratic State, where a high degree of political maturity of the people obtains, the conflict between the will of the sovereign law-making body and the organized will of the people seldom occurs.
What does the above passage imply?
Answer (d) & explanation
In a mature democracy, force is reduced to a marginal role in using sovereignty (d). Step 1: the passage says conflict between lawmakers and people "seldom occurs" in a mature democracy. So force is rarely needed. That is option (d). Step 2: option (c) says force is irrelevant. But "seldom" does not mean "never". So "irrelevant" goes too far. Step 3: options (a) and (b) say force is the main feature. That is the opposite of the passage.
Tip: match the strength of the option to the strength of the passage's words. "Seldom" fits "marginal", not "irrelevant". Small word differences decide many CSAT answers.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following relationships among members of a family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F :
- 1. The number of males equals that of females.
- 2. A and E are sons of F.
- 3. D is the mother of two, one boy and one girl.
- 4. B is the son of A.
- 5. There is only one married couple in the family at present.
Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above?
Answer (b) & explanation
A is the husband of D (b). Step 1: A and E are sons, and B is a son. So the males are A, E and B. Equal numbers means C, D and F are female. Step 2: A and E are F's sons, so F is their mother. D is the mother of one boy and one girl. D's son cannot be A or E, who are F's sons, so D's son is B. B is A's son, so D is A's wife. Step 3: C is their daughter. Since there is only one married couple, F is a widowed grandmother. Option (a) is wrong because A is male. Option (c) is wrong because E and F are not D's children. Option (d) has no support.
Tip: start with gender, then link parents and children.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Rights are claims of citizens against the State (c). Rights protect people from misuse of power, so they limit the State. That is why Article 12 defines "State" broadly to include government bodies and other authorities, and why Article 13 voids laws that break Fundamental Rights. Rights are not claims of the State against citizens (a); that describes duties or the State's powers. They are not mere privileges (b, d), because a privilege belongs to a few, while a right belongs to everyone equally.
Some rights also apply against private persons, such as Articles 15(2), 17, 23 and 24. Notice the contrast with Fundamental Duties (Article 51A), which are what citizens owe in return, and which cannot be enforced in court.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to ‘Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)’, consider the following statements :
- 1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme ‘Emerging Urban Forms — Policy Responses and Governance Structure’.
- 2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct, according to UPSC (d). The Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development first met in New Delhi in 2006. However, the theme quoted in statement 1 does not match UPSC's record of that meeting. Statement 2 is clearly wrong because the conference is held every two years, not every year, and it rotates among members: Iran in 2008, Indonesia in 2010, Jordan in 2012, and so on. India does not host them all, and it does not run them with ADB, APEC and ASEAN. UN-Habitat backs it.
India hosted again in 2016 (New Delhi). Notice the trick in such questions: "all", "only" and "annual" are often the error. Linked bodies include UN-Habitat and its World Urban Forum.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples ?
- 1. Arasavalli
- 2. Amarakantak
- 3. Omkareshwar
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (a) & explanation
Only Arasavalli is famous for a Sun temple (a). Arasavalli in Srikakulam, Andhra Pradesh, has an old Surya temple, believed to date from the 7th century under the Eastern Gangas. It was built so that on certain days of the year the morning sun falls on the deity's feet. Amarkantak (2), in Anuppur district of MP, is the source of the Narmada and Son rivers. Omkareshwar (3), on an island in the Narmada, is one of the 12 Jyotirlinga shrines of Shiva, with a giant statue of Adi Shankaracharya unveiled in 2023.
Notice the other famous Sun temples: Konark (Odisha, Narasimhadeva I, UNESCO), Modhera (Gujarat, the Solankis), Martand (Kashmir, Lalitaditya) and Katarmal (Uttarakhand).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
The man who is perpetually hesitating which of the two things he will do first, will do neither. The man who resolves, but suffers his resolution to be changed by the first counter-suggestion of a friend—who fluctuates from opinion to opinion and veers from plan to plan—can never accomplish anything. He will at best be stationary and probably retrograde in all. It is only the man who first consults wisely, then resolves firmly and then executes his purpose with inflexible perseverance, undismayed by those petty difficulties which daunt a weaker spirit—that can advance to eminence in any line.
The keynote that seems to be emerging from the passage is that
Answer (a) & explanation
The keynote is that we should first consult wisely and then decide firmly (a). Step 1: the closing line gives the order: a wise person "first consults wisely, then resolves firmly". That is option (a). Step 2: option (b), rejecting friends' advice, ignores the need to consult. Step 3: option (d), being resolute and achievement-minded, keeps the firmness but drops the consulting step. Option (c), always being broad-minded, misses the firm decision. Only (a) keeps both halves in the right order.
Tip: when the passage ends with a summary line, the keynote is usually there. Choose the option that keeps every part of it, not just one half.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the given statement and the two conclusions that follow :
Statement : Morning walk is good for health.
Conclusions :
- 1. All healthy people go for morning walk.
- 2. Morning walk is essential for maintaining good health.
What is/are the valid conclusion/conclusions?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither conclusion is valid (d). Step 1: the statement says morning walk is good for health. Step 2: conclusion 2 says morning walk is essential for good health. "Good for" is not "essential for"; people can stay healthy through other exercise. So 2 does not follow. Step 3: conclusion 1 says all healthy people take morning walks. Healthy people may stay fit in other ways, like yoga or sport. So 1 does not follow either. Options (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Tip: "A is good for B" never means "B needs A" or "everyone with B does A". Do not reverse a statement or make it stronger than it is.
words like 'all' and 'essential' are stronger than the statement. Reject them.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
The States are like pearls and the Centre is the thread which turns them into a necklace; if the thread snaps, the pearls are scattered.
Which one of the following views corroborates the above statement?
Answer (b) & explanation
The view that a strong Centre binds the nation together corroborates the statement (b). Step 1: the statement compares the Centre to the thread that holds pearls in a necklace. If the thread snaps, the pearls scatter. So the Centre keeps the nation united. That is option (b). Step 2: option (a) adds strong States, which the image does not mention. Step 3: options (c) and (d) speak of State autonomy, which the image also does not discuss. Option (c) even suggests the Centre is a hindrance, the opposite view.
Tip: when a statement uses an image, decode the image first. Thread = Centre, pearls = States, scattering = breakup. Then pick the option that matches.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at
Answer (c) & explanation
This happens at Chandipur (c). At Chandipur beach in Balasore district, Odisha, the shore slopes so gently that at low tide the sea pulls back up to about 5 km. You can walk on the exposed sea floor, and the water returns with the next tide, twice a day. This "hide-and-seek beach" is also home to horseshoe crabs, and DRDO's Integrated Test Range for missiles is nearby. Bhavnagar (a) is in Gujarat and has high tides but no such walkable retreat. Bheemunipatnam (b) and Nagapattinam (d) are ordinary beaches.
Tides happen twice a day because of the Moon's pull. Notice the extremes: the Gulf of Khambhat has India's highest tidal range, which makes it a site for possible tidal power.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements :
- 1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism.
- 2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only statement 2 is correct (b). Statement 1 is wrong because the Sautrantikas and Sammitiyas were early Buddhist schools, not Jain ones. The Sautrantikas relied on the sutras rather than the Abhidharma. The Sammitiyas were the main pudgalavada ("person-exists") school, and Xuanzang found them strong in western India. Statement 2 is right because the Sarvastivadins ("all exists") held that dharmas, the building blocks of reality, exist in past, present and future in a latent form. They are not purely momentary.
The Sarvastivadins were strong in Kashmir and Gandhara and linked to Kanishka's Fourth Council. Notice the Jain sects to keep apart: Digambara and Shvetambara, which split after Bhadrabahu's migration south.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.