UPSC Prelims PYQs with explanations

Real questions from official papers, mapped to syllabus topics. Attempt each one; the answer and the reason appear instantly.

UPSC Prelims 2025 · GS Paper I

India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect

Answer (a) & explanation

INSTC links India to Central Asia and Europe via Iran (a). The International North–South Transport Corridor was agreed in 2000 by India, Iran and Russia. Goods go by sea from Mumbai to Bandar Abbas or Chabahar in Iran, then by road and rail through Iran, the Caspian region and Central Asia to Russia and on to Europe. Option (b) is wrong: it does not pass through China. Option (c) is wrong: that describes routes like the Trilateral Highway. Option (d) is wrong: Azerbaijan is one route inside the corridor, not its whole.

Notice its value: it is shorter and cheaper than the Suez route. India runs a terminal at Chabahar under a 10-year deal (2024). The IMEC corridor via the Gulf is another route.

Trap

option (d) names a real transit country. The full path in (a), via Iran, is the defining one.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2025 · GS Paper I

GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?

  • I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.
  • II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management.
  • III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Answer (d) & explanation

Statements I and II are correct (d). GAGAN, built by ISRO and the Airports Authority of India, corrects GPS signals using ground stations and geostationary satellites. Statement I is right: it adds accuracy and integrity. Statement II is right: it allows more uniform, high-quality air traffic management and safer aircraft approaches. Statement III is wrong: its signal is also used for railways, shipping, fishing alerts and surveying. So options (a), (b) and (c) fail.

Notice the difference: GAGAN improves GPS, while NavIC (IRNSS) is India's own independent regional navigation system. India was the third country, after the USA and Europe, with such an aviation-grade satellite-based augmentation system.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2025 · CSAT (Paper II)
Read the passage

One of the dismal realities of the agricultural sector in independent India has been that it never experienced a high-growth phase, unlike the non-agricultural economy. The highest decadal growth (compound annual growth rate or CAGR) for agriculture has been just 3·5% in the 1980s. Also, after experiencing a spurt in decadal growth during the 1980s, agricultural growth suffered relative stagnation thereafter. This is in sharp contrast to non-agricultural growth, which consistently increased from the 1980s to 2000s.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the corollary to the above passage?

Answer (a) & explanation

The corollary is that reform benefits reach agriculture more slowly than other sectors (a). Step 1: a corollary is something that follows naturally from the passage. Step 2: the passage says farm growth peaked at 3.5% in the 1980s and then stagnated, while non-farm growth rose steadily from the 1980s to the 2000s, the reform era. So the gains of reform reached farming more slowly: (a). Step 3: options (b) the Green Revolution, (c) mechanisation and (d) migration are not discussed at all.

Tip: a corollary stays close to the passage's facts. India's economic reforms began in 1991; agriculture still employs over 40% of workers but gives a much smaller share of GDP.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2025 · CSAT (Paper II)
Read the passage

“A good statesman, like any other sensible human being, learns more from his opponents than from his fervent supporters. For his supporters will push him to disaster unless his opponents show him where the dangers are. So if he is wise he will often pray to be delivered from his friends, because they will ruin him. But, though it hurts, he ought also to pray never to be left without opponents; for they keep him on the path of reason and good sense. The national unity of free people depends upon a sufficiently even balance of political power to make it impracticable for the administration to be arbitrary and for opposition to be revolutionary and irreconcilable.”

Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the author of the passage?

Answer (d) & explanation

The message is that opposition is indispensable for balance of power and good governance in a democracy (d). Step 1: the passage says a statesman learns more from opponents than from supporters, because opponents "keep him on the path of reason and good sense". Step 2: it ends: free people's unity needs "a sufficiently even balance of political power". So opposition is essential: (d). Step 3: option (a) says government improves without opposition, the opposite. Option (b) wants revolutionary opposition; the passage warns against that. Option (c) says rulers need opposition's support, a misreading.

Tip: the last sentence often holds the political message. In India, the Leader of the Opposition holds an official, recognised role in Parliament.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2025 · GS Paper I

Consider the following statements :

Statement I :

In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.

Statement II :

In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Answer (d) & explanation

Statement I is wrong, Statement II is right (d). Statement II is right: rural agricultural land is excluded from the meaning of "capital asset" under Section 2(14) of the Income-tax Act, so its sale attracts no capital gains tax. Statement I is wrong: only agricultural income, from land used for cultivation as defined in Section 2(1A), is exempt. Poultry, dairy and wool rearing do not use land for cultivation, so their income is taxable like business income. So options (a), (b) and (c) fail.

Notice that the power to tax agricultural income lies with the States (State List, Entry 46), not the Centre. The new Income-tax Act, 2025, replacing the 1961 Act from April 2026, keeps this exemption.

Trap

"allied agricultural activities" sounds like agriculture. For tax law, only income from the land itself counts.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2025 · GS Paper I

Consider the following pairs :

| Plant | Description

| I. Cassava | Woody shrub

| II. Ginger | Herb with pseudostem

| III. Malabar spinach | Herbaceous climber

| IV. Mint | Annual shrub

| V. Papaya | Woody shrub

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Answer (b) & explanation

Three pairs are correctly matched (b). Pair I is right: cassava is a woody shrub grown for its starchy roots. Pair II is right: ginger is a herb whose leafy "stem" is a pseudostem of rolled leaf sheaths above the rhizome. Pair III is right: Malabar spinach is a soft, herbaceous climber. Pair IV is wrong: mint is a perennial herb, not an annual shrub. Pair V is wrong: papaya is a soft-stemmed, tree-like plant, not a woody shrub.

Notice the term pseudostem: the banana plant also has one, which is why it is a giant herb, not a tree. Cassava, also called tapioca, is a major crop in Kerala and a staple food across Africa.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2025 · GS Paper I

Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?

Answer (b) & explanation

Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant defended them (b). After the Chauri Chaura violence in February 1922, where a mob burnt a police station and 22 policemen died, the sessions court sentenced 172 people to death. Madan Mohan Malaviya argued the appeal in the Allahabad High Court with Krishna Kant Malaviya. The court confirmed only 19 death sentences and set aside most of the rest. Options (a), (c) and (d), C.R. Das, Kitchlew and Nizami, and Jinnah, did not lead this defence.

Notice the main result: Gandhi called off the Non-Cooperation Movement, angering many leaders. C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru then formed the Swaraj Party (1923) to contest council elections. Malaviya founded Banaras Hindu University.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2025 · GS Paper I

Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy :

  • I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.
  • II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer (c) & explanation

Both statements are correct (c). Statement I is right: Raja Ram Mohan Roy translated the Upanishads into Bengali and English, and defended Vedanta as the pure core of Hinduism, so he loved and respected Eastern philosophy. Statement II is right: he wanted modern, rational learning. His 1823 letter to Lord Amherst asked for science and English education. He fought sati and argued for women's property rights, for the dignity and equality of women. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.

Notice his firsts: he founded the Brahmo Sabha (1828), later the Brahmo Samaj, and the papers Sambad Kaumudi and Mirat-ul-Akhbar. Sati was banned in 1829 by Bentinck. He is called the "Father of the Indian Renaissance".

Trap

A reformer who attacked idol worship can still revere the Upanishads. Both are true.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2025 · CSAT (Paper II)
Read the passage

In our country, regrettably, teaching and learning for the examination have been our forte but the new demands of society and the future of work require critical and independent thinking, learning through doing, asking questions from multiple disciplinary perspectives on the same issue, using evidence for building arguments, and reflecting and articulation. Higher education should not “either be a mere servant of the government policy or a passive respondent to public mood.” Higher learning is all about how to think rather than what to think. Teaching has to be re-invented.

With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

  • I. Higher education is a constantly evolving subject that needs to align towards new developments in all spheres of society.
  • II. In our country, sufficient funds are not allocated for promoting higher education.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?

Answer (a) & explanation

Only assumption I is valid (a). Step 1: the passage says "the new demands of society and the future of work" need new kinds of learning, and teaching must be re-invented. So higher education must keep evolving with society (I). Step 2: assumption II, about insufficient funds for higher education, is never mentioned. The passage is about teaching methods, not money. Step 3: so options (b), (c) and (d) fail.

Tip: reject assumptions that bring in a new topic like funds, staff or buildings when the passage talks only about methods. A valid assumption must link directly to the author's argument.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2025 · CSAT (Paper II)

Consider the following statements:

  • I. There exists a natural number which when increased by 50% can have its number of factors unchanged.
  • II. There exists a natural number which when increased by 150% can have its number of factors unchanged.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer (c) & explanation

Both statements are correct (c). Step 1: "there exists" needs just one example. Step 2: statement I: increase by 50% means × 1.5. Take 2 → 3. Both are primes with exactly 2 factors. So the factor count is unchanged: true. Step 3: statement II: increase by 150% means × 2.5. Take 2 → 5. Again both are primes with 2 factors: true. Options (a), (b) and (d) fail.

Tip: for "there exists" statements, hunt for one simple example; for "always" statements, hunt for one counter-example. Primes are handy because they all have exactly two factors.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2025 · GS Paper I

With reference to ancient India (600-322 BC), consider the following pairs :

| Territorial region | River flowing in the region

| I. Asmaka | Godavari

| II. Kamboja | Vipas

| III. Avanti | Mahanadi

| IV. Kosala | Sarayu

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Answer (b) & explanation

Only two pairs are correctly matched (b). Pair I is right: Asmaka was the only southern mahajanapada, on the Godavari. Pair IV is right: Kosala lay on the Sarayu, with Ayodhya on its bank. Pair II is wrong: Kamboja was in the far north-west, around the Kabul valley, not on the Vipas (Beas). Pair III is wrong: Avanti, with capitals Ujjain and Mahishmati, was on the Shipra and Narmada, not the Mahanadi.

Notice the list of sixteen mahajanapadas in the Anguttara Nikaya. Magadha rose to be the strongest, with Rajagriha and later Pataliputra as its capitals. Kosala's later capital was Shravasti, where the Buddha spent many rainy seasons.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2025 · GS Paper I

Consider the following statements :

  • Statement I : Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.
  • Statement II : Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.
  • Statement III : Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Answer (a) & explanation

Both II and III are correct and both explain Statement I (a). Statement II is right: activated carbon is full of tiny pores, so one gram has a huge surface area, often over 1,000 m², on which pollutants and heavy metals stick (adsorption). That makes it work well. Statement III is right: it can be made cheaply from coconut shells, rice husk and other carbon-rich waste, which makes it attractive. Both explain Statement I, so options (b), (c) and (d) fail.

Notice the spelling: adsorption means sticking to a surface; absorption means soaking in. Activated carbon is used in water filters, gas masks, and treating poisoning in hospitals. India's coconut-growing south is a big producer.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2025 · GS Paper I

With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs :

| Aircraft type | Description

| I. Dornier-228 | Maritime patrol aircraft

| II. IL-76 | Supersonic combat aircraft

| III. C-17 Globemaster III | Military transport aircraft

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Answer (b) & explanation

Only two pairs are correctly matched (b). Pair I is right: the HAL-built Dornier-228 flies maritime patrol for the Navy and Coast Guard. Pair III is right: the C-17 Globemaster III is the IAF's largest strategic airlifter, a military transport aircraft. Pair II is wrong: the IL-76 is a Russian heavy transport aircraft, also used as a tanker and AWACS platform, not a supersonic fighter. So options (a), (c) and (d) fail.

Notice other transport planes: the C-130J Super Hercules, and the C-295, the first military aircraft to be made in India by a private firm, Tata, at Vadodara. Fighters include the Rafale, Su-30MKI and Tejas. The P-8I is the Navy's long-range patrol plane.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2025 · CSAT (Paper II)
Read the passage

Each State in India faces a distinctive set of challenges regarding the impact of warming, but also offers its own set of opportunities for reducing emissions depending on its natural resources. For example, coastal States need to take action to protect their shores from sea level rise, districts that are drier need to prepare for variable monsoon precipitation. Himalayan regions have their own unique challenges, and selected parts of peninsular India and offshore areas offer great opportunities for harnessing wind power. These various aspects need to be considered for developing clear and sustainable goals for the future.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and pragmatic message conveyed by the author of the passage?

Answer (d) & explanation

The message is that India needs climate strategies at the State or regional level (d). Step 1: the passage says each State faces "a distinctive set of challenges" and has its own opportunities. Coasts face sea-level rise; dry districts face erratic monsoons; peninsular areas suit wind power. Step 2: so plans must suit each region: (d). Step 3: option (a) makes it solely the State's duty; the passage does not exclude the Centre. Option (b) is defeatist. Option (c) gives the job only to the Union Government, against the passage.

Tip: prefer options that match the passage's scope without adding "only" or "essentially". India has a National Action Plan on Climate Change, and every State has its own State Action Plan.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2025 · CSAT (Paper II)
Read the passage

In only 50 years, the world’s consumption of raw materials has nearly quadrupled, to more than 100 billion tons. Less than 9% of this is reused. Batteries of old vehicles contain materials such as lithium, cobalt, manganese and nickel that are pricey and can be hard to obtain. Supply chains are long and complicated. Buyers’ risks are being aggravated by their suppliers’ poor environmental and labour standards. Reusing materials makes sense. Once batteries reach the ends of their lives, they should go back to a factory where their ingredients can be recovered and put into new batteries.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and pragmatic message conveyed by the passage?

Answer (c) & explanation

The message is that a circular economy can support sustainable growth (c). Step 1: the passage says raw material use has nearly quadrupled in 50 years, but less than 9% is reused. Battery metals like lithium and cobalt are costly and supply chains are risky. Step 2: it concludes "reusing materials makes sense", sending old batteries back to factories for new ones. Reuse in a loop is a circular economy: (c). Step 3: option (a) says green economy is "not possible" without it. Option (b) says "every sector immediately". Option (d) says "only option". All three are extreme.

Tip: "can be beneficial" is mild and safe; prefer it over absolute options. India's Battery Waste Management Rules, 2022, make producers responsible for collecting and recycling batteries.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2025 · CSAT (Paper II)

In a T20 cricket match, three players X, Y and Z scored a total of 37 runs. The ratio of number of runs scored by X to the number of runs scored by Y is equal to ratio of number of runs scored by Y to number of runs scored by Z.

Value-I = Runs scored by X

Value-II = Runs scored by Y

Value-III = Runs scored by Z

Which one of the following is correct?

Answer (d) & explanation

The order cannot be determined (d). Step 1: X : Y = Y : Z means Y² = XZ: the three scores are in continued proportion (a geometric pattern). Step 2: with a total of 37, the whole-number answer is 9, 12, 16 (12² = 9 × 16 = 144). Step 3: but X = 9, Z = 16 and X = 16, Z = 9 both satisfy X : Y = Y : Z. So the scores could rise or fall. Since the order is not fixed, the answer cannot be determined. Options (a), (b) and (c) each pick one order.

Tip: a ratio condition like X : Y = Y : Z is symmetric in X and Z. Check whether swapping values still fits before choosing an order.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2025 · GS Paper I

Consider the following statements :

  • I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth’s surface.
  • II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.
  • III. Atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Answer (c) & explanation

All three statements are correct (c). Statement I is right: without its air, Earth would average about −18°C, instead of about 15°C now, so it would be below freezing everywhere. Statement II is right: the heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere keeps our average temperature. Statement III is right: gases such as water vapour, carbon dioxide and methane absorb the long-wave (infrared) radiation the surface gives off and send part of it back. This is the greenhouse effect. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.

Notice the difference: the natural greenhouse effect makes life possible, but the enhanced greenhouse effect from burning fossil fuels causes global warming. Water vapour is the largest natural greenhouse gas.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2025 · GS Paper I

Consider the following statements :

Statement I :

Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.

Statement II :

Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Answer (d) & explanation

Statement I is wrong, Statement II is right (d). Statement II is right: the USA makes ethanol mostly from corn (maize), while Brazil uses sugarcane. Statement I is wrong: it reverses the ranking. The USA is the largest ethanol producer, with over half of world output; Brazil is second. So options (a), (b) and (c) fail.

Notice India's place: now third, using cane juice, molasses, and surplus grains such as rice and maize. India reached 20% ethanol blending in petrol (E20) in 2025, five years ahead of the old target. The Global Biofuels Alliance, launched at India's G20 in 2023, includes the USA and Brazil.

Trap

Brazil's ethanol cars are famous, so it "feels" like number one. The USA produces more.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2025 · GS Paper I

Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025 :

  • I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.
  • II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer (a) & explanation

Only statement I is correct (a). Statement I is right: France and India co-chaired the Paris AI Action Summit in February 2025, which followed Bletchley Park (2023) and Seoul (2024). Statement II is wrong: about sixty countries, India and China included, signed its declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI, but the US and UK did not sign. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.

Notice what came next: India hosted the AI Impact Summit in New Delhi in February 2026, the first in the Global South. At home, the IndiaAI Mission (2024) funds shared GPU computing power and Indian foundation models. The EU's AI Act (2024) is the first broad AI law.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2025 · CSAT (Paper II)
Read the passage

One of the dismal realities of the agricultural sector in independent India has been that it never experienced a high-growth phase, unlike the non-agricultural economy. The highest decadal growth (compound annual growth rate or CAGR) for agriculture has been just 3·5% in the 1980s. Also, after experiencing a spurt in decadal growth during the 1980s, agricultural growth suffered relative stagnation thereafter. This is in sharp contrast to non-agricultural growth, which consistently increased from the 1980s to 2000s.

With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:

The growing divergence between the fortunes of the agricultural and non-agricultural economy in India could have been reduced/contained by :

  • I. adapting large-scale cultivation of commercial crops and viable corporate farming.
  • II. providing free insurance for all crops and heavily subsidizing seeds, fertilizers, electricity and farm machinery at par with developed countries.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

Answer (d) & explanation

Neither assumption is valid (d). Step 1: the passage only describes the gap: agriculture stagnated while non-farm growth rose. It suggests no remedy. Step 2: assumption I, corporate farming and commercial crops, and assumption II, free insurance and heavy subsidies, are possible policies, but neither is mentioned or implied. Step 3: they come from outside knowledge, so neither is an assumption of this passage. Options (a), (b) and (c) fail.

Tip: when a passage only describes a problem, any specific solution is outside it. Do not accept a remedy just because it sounds reasonable. India already runs PM Fasal Bima Yojana (crop insurance) and PM-KISAN, but the passage does not discuss them.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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