UPSC Prelims PYQs with explanations
Real questions from official papers, mapped to syllabus topics. Attempt each one; the answer and the reason appear instantly.
Read the passage
“A good statesman, like any other sensible human being, learns more from his opponents than from his fervent supporters. For his supporters will push him to disaster unless his opponents show him where the dangers are. So if he is wise he will often pray to be delivered from his friends, because they will ruin him. But, though it hurts, he ought also to pray never to be left without opponents; for they keep him on the path of reason and good sense. The national unity of free people depends upon a sufficiently even balance of political power to make it impracticable for the administration to be arbitrary and for opposition to be revolutionary and irreconcilable.”
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made
- I. In a democracy, a strong opposition is required only if the Head of Government is indifferent.
- II. The more aggressive the opposition, the better is the governance in a democracy.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither assumption is valid (d). Step 1: assumption I says a strong opposition is needed "only if" the head of government is indifferent. But the passage says even a wise statesman should "pray never to be left without opponents". So opposition is always needed; I fails. Step 2: assumption II says the more aggressive the opposition, the better. The passage wants balance, and warns against opposition that is "revolutionary and irreconcilable". So II fails. Step 3: options (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Tip: "only if" and "the more ... the better" are traps. Passages about balance reject extremes on both sides.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
- II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.
- III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements I and III are correct (c). Statement I is right: India joined the US-led Minerals Security Partnership in June 2023, to secure supply chains for critical minerals. Statement III is right: the MMDR Amendment Act, 2023, let the Centre alone auction mining leases and composite licences for 24 critical and strategic minerals. Statement II is wrong: India listed 30 critical minerals in 2023, but must import many of them, such as lithium, cobalt and nickel. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice the National Critical Mineral Mission (2025) and KABIL, a state firm that buys mineral assets abroad, such as lithium blocks in Argentina. China dominates the processing of most of these minerals.
"all the 30". India drew up the list because it lacks many of them.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements :
- I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.
- II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world’s oxygen.
- III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only statement II is correct (b). Statement II is right: about half of Earth's oxygen comes from the ocean, mostly from phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria such as Prochlorococcus. Statement I is wrong: so rainforests do not produce more oxygen than oceans; the Amazon also uses up most of what it makes. Statement III is wrong: even well-mixed surface water holds far less oxygen than air, only a few millilitres per litre against about 210 in air.
Notice the link to dead zones: warm water holds even less oxygen, and nutrient runoff from fertilisers causes algal blooms that strip it out, as in the Gulf of Mexico and the Arabian Sea. Ocean warming threatens these tiny oxygen makers.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme?
Answer (a) & explanation
Gandhi took up Harijan upliftment after the Poona Pact (a). The Poona Pact (September 1932) ended Gandhi's fast in Yerawada jail against separate electorates for the depressed classes, agreed with B.R. Ambedkar. He then gave himself to anti-untouchability work. He founded the Harijan Sevak Sangh (1932) and the weekly Harijan (1933), and toured the country for it in 1933–34. Options (b), (c) and (d) came at other times and did not trigger this.
Notice the deal: instead of separate electorates under the Communal Award (1932), depressed classes got reserved seats within joint electorates, more seats than the Award offered. Ambedkar later criticised Gandhi's approach, writing What Congress and Gandhi Have Done to the Untouchables.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
Maintaining an ecosystem just to conserve biodiversity will affect its commercial potential as well as the livelihoods dependent on the ecosystem. There is also a conflict between using an ecosystem only for livelihoods, for commercial exploitation, or strictly for conservation. Deforestation caused due to commercial exploitation will lead to indirect harm like floods, siltation problems and microclimatic instability, apart from adversely affecting livelihoods dependent on forests. These conflicts are particularly acute in developing countries where the dependence of people on the ecosystem is significant, and commercial exploitation has the potential to boost national income.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the author of the passage?
Answer (c) & explanation
The critical message is that livelihoods and ecosystem damage feed each other, causing conflict and imbalance (c). Step 1: the passage says conservation, livelihoods and commercial use pull against each other. Step 2: it adds that deforestation causes floods, siltation and climate instability, which in turn hurt livelihoods. So each problem worsens the other: (c). Step 3: option (a) dismisses conservation; the passage does not. Option (b) brings in fundamental rights, never mentioned. Option (d) says exploitation should be "completely stopped"; the passage weighs trade-offs and even notes it can boost national income.
Tip: passages about "conflicts" usually want a balanced answer. Reject extreme options like "completely stopped". This trade-off is the core idea of sustainable development.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
If there is inequality in the pattern of population growth, there is greater inequality in food production and utilization. As societies become wealthier, their consumption of animal products increases. This means that a greater proportion of such basic foodstuff as grains and legumes that could feed humans directly is instead being converted into feed for poultry and large farm animals. Yet this conversion of plant-based food into animal food for humans is far from efficient. Only 16% of the calories fed to chickens are recovered by us when we eat them. This conversion rate goes down to five to seven per cent in large animals that are fed grain to add fat and some protein before slaughter.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?
Answer (b) & explanation
The crux is that animal-based food is far less efficient than plant-based food (b). Step 1: the passage says richer societies eat more animal products, so grain that could feed people is fed to animals. Step 2: it gives numbers: only 16% of calories fed to chickens come back to us, and just 5–7% for large animals. It calls this "far from efficient." That is (b). Step 3: options (a), a public policy, and (c), replacing animal protein, are prescriptions the passage does not make. Option (d) calls inequality "inevitable", which is not said.
Tip: crux questions want what the passage proves, not what someone should do about it. The numbers here prove inefficiency.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
There are 7 places A, B, C, D, E, F, and G in a city connected by various roads AB, CD, DE, BF, EG. A is 6 km south of B. A is 10 km west of C. D is 5 km east of E. C is 6 km north of D. F is 9 km west of B. F is 12 km north of G. A person travels from D to F through these roads. What is the distance covered by the person?
Answer (c) & explanation
The distance covered is 31 km (c). Step 1: place A at (0, 0). B is 6 km north: (0, 6). C is 10 km east of A: (10, 0). D is 6 km south of C: (10, −6). E is 5 km west of D: (5, −6). F is 9 km west of B: (−9, 6). G is 12 km south of F: (−9, −6). Step 2: the roads are AB, CD, DE, BF and EG. From D, the only route to F is D → E → G → F. Step 3: DE = 5, EG = 5 − (−9) = 14, GF = 12. Total = 5 + 14 + 12 = 31 km. Options (a), (b) and (d) take routes that do not exist.
Tip: draw coordinates, then follow only the given roads, not straight lines.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in
Answer (d) & explanation
The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya was set up in Lahore (d). Vishnu Digambar Paluskar started it in Lahore in 1901. It was among the first music schools open to the public, run on fees and public money rather than royal patronage. He later moved it to Bombay. Options (a), (b) and (c), Delhi, Gwalior and Ujjain, are wrong. Gwalior was famous for its own gharana of singing, a family tradition, not for this school.
Notice his partner in reviving Hindustani music: V.N. Bhatkhande, who classified ragas into ten thaats. Paluskar set Raghupati Raghava Raja Ram to its popular tune. His pupils included Omkarnath Thakur, and his son D.V. Paluskar.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements :
- I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
- II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
- III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements I and III are correct (c). An Ordinance under Article 123 has the same force as an Act of Parliament. Statement I is right: so it can amend any Central Act. Statement III is right: like an Act, it can be made retrospective, taking effect from a back date. Statement II is wrong: Article 13 counts an Ordinance as "law", and no law can take away or abridge Fundamental Rights. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice the limits: an Ordinance can be issued only when Parliament is not in session, and it lapses six weeks after Parliament reassembles unless approved. In Krishna Kumar Singh (2017), the Supreme Court held that re-promulgating Ordinances again and again is a fraud on the Constitution. Governors have the same power under Article 213.
"same force as an Act" makes students think an Ordinance can do anything. It carries the same limits too.
Traps like this come back in new clothes. The PYQ Book collects all of them, topic by topic, so none catch you twice. Try the free sample
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of
Answer (a) & explanation
Silver iodide and potassium iodide are used (a). Cloud seeding sprays particles into suitable clouds so that water droplets or ice crystals form around them. Silver iodide is the standard agent, as its crystal shape is close to ice, and potassium iodide is used with it. Rain then washes dust and smoke out of the air. Options (b), (c) and (d) are wrong: silver nitrate, potassium nitrate and potassium chloride are not the usual agents, though common salt is used in some warm-cloud seeding.
Notice the catch: seeding needs clouds with enough moisture; it cannot make rain from a clear sky. Delhi tried cloud seeding against smog with IIT Kanpur in 2025, with little success because the air was too dry.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
Each State in India faces a distinctive set of challenges regarding the impact of warming, but also offers its own set of opportunities for reducing emissions depending on its natural resources. For example, coastal States need to take action to protect their shores from sea level rise, districts that are drier need to prepare for variable monsoon precipitation. Himalayan regions have their own unique challenges, and selected parts of peninsular India and offshore areas offer great opportunities for harnessing wind power. These various aspects need to be considered for developing clear and sustainable goals for the future.
With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:
- I. Green energy production can be linked to/integrated with the climate change mitigation and adaptation strategies.
- II. Effects of climate change are much more severe in coastal and mountainous regions.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Answer (a) & explanation
Only assumption I is valid (a). Step 1: the passage lists wind power opportunities alongside adaptation needs like coastal protection, and says all these must be considered in setting goals. So green energy fits into climate strategies (I). Step 2: assumption II says climate effects are "much more severe" in coastal and mountain regions. The passage says each region has its own challenges, including dry districts; it never ranks them. Step 3: so II makes a comparison the passage does not. Options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Tip: reject comparisons ("more severe", "most affected") unless the passage clearly compares. Mitigation means cutting emissions; adaptation means coping with impacts.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
In only 50 years, the world’s consumption of raw materials has nearly quadrupled, to more than 100 billion tons. Less than 9% of this is reused. Batteries of old vehicles contain materials such as lithium, cobalt, manganese and nickel that are pricey and can be hard to obtain. Supply chains are long and complicated. Buyers’ risks are being aggravated by their suppliers’ poor environmental and labour standards. Reusing materials makes sense. Once batteries reach the ends of their lives, they should go back to a factory where their ingredients can be recovered and put into new batteries.
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
- I. Automobile factories are examples of the circular economy.
- II. Economic growth is compatible with circular use of mineral resources.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only assumption II is valid (b). Step 1: the passage says recovering battery materials and putting them into new batteries makes sense, keeping production going with fewer raw materials. So growth and the circular use of minerals can go together (II). Step 2: assumption I says automobile factories are examples of the circular economy. The passage says batteries should go back to factories, a suggestion, not a description of what already happens. Step 3: so I fails. Options (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Tip: watch the difference between "should" (a recommendation) and "is" (a fact). An assumption that turns a suggestion into a present fact is invalid.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Let p + q = 10, where p, q are integers.
Value-I = Maximum value of p × q when p, q are positive integers.
Value-II = Maximum value of p × q when p ≥ −6, q ≥ −4.
Which one of the following is correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
The two values are equal (c). Step 1: Value-I: p + q = 10 with positive whole numbers. A product is largest when the two numbers are equal: 5 × 5 = 25. Step 2: Value-II allows p down to −6 and q down to −4, so p can range from −6 to 14. The new pairs, like (−6, 16) or (14, −4), have negative products. The best is still 5 × 5 = 25. Step 3: so Value-I = Value-II. Options (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Tip: for a fixed sum, the product is greatest when the numbers are as equal as possible. Allowing negative numbers only adds smaller (negative) products here.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission :
- I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
- II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Both statements are correct (c). The Rashtriya Gokul Mission (December 2014) develops and conserves indigenous bovine breeds. Statement II is right: it promotes native cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific way, through better breeding, artificial insemination and Gokul Grams. Statement I is right: most low-yielding desi animals belong to small and marginal farmers and landless labourers, so raising their milk yield helps the rural poor. Both lines come from the scheme's own description.
Notice the famous breeds: Gir, Sahiwal, Red Sindhi and Tharparkar cows, and the Murrah buffalo. The mission also uses sex-sorted semen and IVF. India is the world's largest milk producer.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?
- I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
- II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer (c) & explanation
Both statements are counted correct (c). Statement II is right: wet-bulb temperature combines heat and humidity. At about 35°C, sweat no longer evaporates, so the body cannot cool itself, threatening the survival of humans and animals. Statement I is counted too in UPSC's key: the warming that drives such heat also brings heavier floods, stronger cyclones and longer droughts to peninsular India. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice where the risk is high: humid coastal and plains areas, like the Indo-Gangetic plains and the Odisha coast. The World Bank report was on investment in cooling. India's Heat Action Plans, first made in Ahmedabad in 2013, aim to cut heat deaths.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following pairs :
- I. International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026
- II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027
- III. International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025
- IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence : 2029
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Answer (d) & explanation
All four pairs are correctly matched (d). The UN General Assembly has declared 2025 the Year of Peace and Trust (pair III), 2026 the Year of the Woman Farmer (pair I), 2027 the Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism (pair II), and 2029 the Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence (pair IV). The 2029 date fits the year asteroid Apophis passes very close to Earth. So options (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Notice other years: 2023 was the International Year of Millets, proposed by India, and 2025 was also the Year of Cooperatives and of Quantum Science. 2026 is also the Year of Rangelands and Pastoralists.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Read the passage
In our country, handlooms are equated with a culture that ensures a continuity of tradition. This idea has become part of the public policy-framing and provides a legitimate basis for the State to support the sector. But the notion of tradition as a single, linear entity is being strongly contested today. The narratives dominant in defining culture/tradition in a particular way are seen to have emerged as the identities and histories of large sections. The discounted and, at times, forcibly stifled identities are fighting for their rightful place in history. Against this backdrop, when we promote handloom as a traditional industry, it is not surprising that large sections of our population choose to ignore it.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message conveyed by the author of the passage?
Answer (a) & explanation
The message is that handloom must be freed from the narrow "cultural heritage" narrative (a). Step 1: the passage says handloom is promoted as tradition, but the idea of one single tradition is now contested. Step 2: so when handloom is sold as "traditional", "large sections of our population choose to ignore it". The narrow narrative is the problem: (a). Step 3: option (b) repeats the very framing the author questions. Options (c), modernising household units, and (d), machine-made products, are not suggested and (d) is extreme.
Tip: identify what the author criticises; the answer usually removes that problem. India marks National Handloom Day on 7 August, recalling the Swadeshi Movement of 1905.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
P is the brother of Q and R. S is R's mother. T is P's father. How many of the following statements are definitely true ?
- I. S and T are a couple.
- II. Q is T's son.
- III. T is Q's father.
- IV. S is P's mother.
- V. R is T's daughter.
- VI. P is S's son.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer (c) & explanation
Only four statements are definitely true (c). Step 1: P is the brother of Q and R, so P, Q and R are siblings. S is R's mother, so S is mother of all three. T is P's father, so T is father of all three. Step 2: so I (S and T are a couple), III (T is Q's father), IV (S is P's mother) and VI (P is S's son; P is a brother, so male) are true. Step 3: II says Q is T's son, and V says R is T's daughter. The genders of Q and R are not given, so these are not certain. That makes four. Options (a), (b) and (d) miscount.
Tip: in blood-relation questions, never assume gender from a name or letter. Only words like brother, mother or son fix gender.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
Statement I :
As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.
Statement II :
Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.
Statement III :
For repayment purpose, bond-holders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer (a) & explanation
Both II and III are correct and both explain Statement I (a). Statement II is right: a bondholder is a lender, and the company must pay a fixed interest whether it earns a profit or not; a stockholder is an owner and gets a dividend only if there is profit. Statement III is right: if the company closes, lenders are paid first and owners get what is left. Both reasons explain why bonds carry lower risk, so options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the trade-off: lower risk means lower returns. Stockholders can gain much more when the company grows. In India's Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (2016), secured creditors rank high in the payout order and equity shareholders come last.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following types of vehicles :
- I. Full battery electric vehicles
- II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
- III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles
How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?
Answer (c) & explanation
All three are alternative powertrain vehicles (c). An alternative powertrain is any drive system other than the conventional petrol or diesel engine. Item I is right: full battery electric vehicles run only on a battery and motor. Item II is right: hydrogen fuel cell vehicles make electricity from hydrogen. Item III is right: fuel cell–electric hybrid vehicles combine a fuel cell with a battery. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail. CNG and petrol-electric hybrid cars also count.
Notice India's push: the PM E-DRIVE scheme (2024) for electric vehicles, FAME before it, and the National Green Hydrogen Mission (2023). Flex-fuel cars running on ethanol blends are another option, with E20 petrol now sold across India.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.