Chapter 22 · Topic 22.1 · Prelims + Mains1 of 4
Elections: Electoral process and delimitation
Key points
- Art 326: adult suffrage at 18; Art 324: ECI; RP Act, 1950 (rolls, seats) and RP Act, 1951 (conduct, disqualifications, disputes).
- Nomination (2017, c): any elector of any constituency; at most two seats since 1996; FPTP, no 50% rule (2017, d).
- Right to vote: statutory (Jyoti Basu 1982, Kuldip Nayar 2006); voting is expression (PUCL 2003, NOTA 2013); Lal Babu Hussein (1995): no deletion on suspicion.
- Delimitation (Arts 82, 170): four Commissions, 1952, 1963, 1973, 2002 (2024, d); orders not challengeable (2012, c); seats frozen on 1971 census till first census after 2026.
10 PYQs 2017–2026
Prelims box: facts and traps
- Election disputes go to the High Court; delimitation orders cannot be challenged in court.
Who may vote and who may stand
Like a school election: every student on the register can vote.
The basics.
- Art 326 gives adult suffrage: every citizen aged 18 or more who is not disqualified can vote.
- Art 324 puts superintendence, direction and control of elections in the Election Commission.
- Parliament fills in the detail with two laws: the Representation of the People Act, 1950 (electoral rolls, allocation of seats) and the RP Act, 1951 (conduct of elections, qualifications and disqualifications, corrupt practices and disputes).
Prelims 2017: who can file a nomination paper for Lok Sabha? Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency. It need not be the same constituency (option c).
- Since 1996 the RP Act lets a candidate contest from at most two constituencies.
- It is not true that the winner must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled. India uses first-past-the-post (most votes wins).
- The Constitution also does not reserve the Deputy Speaker’s post for the Opposition. So in 2017 neither statement was correct.
For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
- anyone residing in India.
- a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
- any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
- any citizen of India.
Show answer
Answer: (c) · UPSC official key
Consider the following statements : 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected. 2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (d) · UPSC official key
Mains 2026: Is the right to vote a fundamental right? And can the Election Commission examine citizenship while revising rolls?
- The Supreme Court has called voting a statutory right (Jyoti Basu, 1982; Kuldip Nayar, 2006).
- But casting a vote is a form of expression under Art 19(1)(a) (PUCL, 2003, which led to NOTA in 2013).
- Under Art 326 and the RP Act, 1950 only citizens can be enrolled, so the Commission checks eligibility.
- But Lal Babu Hussein (1995) held that names cannot be struck off on mere suspicion, without notice and a fair hearing.
- The 2025 Special Intensive Revision in Bihar brought the question back to the Supreme Court.
Is the right to vote a fundamental right? Discuss the position of the Election Commission of India while undertaking the revision of electoral rolls. Can it also examine the question of citizenship of voters?
What UPSC asks: Prelims: who can file a nomination (2017); FPTP (2017). Mains: right to vote and roll revision (2026). Next likely angle: Special Intensive Revision litigation.
Delimitation
Delimitation redraws constituency boundaries after a census (Arts 82 and 170). It is done by a Delimitation Commission set up under an Act of Parliament.
- Prelims 2024: how many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted so far? Four: 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002.
- Its orders have the force of law.
- Prelims 2012: the orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law, and when laid before Lok Sabha or a State Assembly the House cannot modify them. Both correct.
How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023 ?
- One
- Two
- Three
- Four
Show answer
Answer: (d) · UPSC official key
With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements : 1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law. 2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) · UPSC official key
The seat freeze. The number of seats per State has been frozen on the 1971 census until the first census after 2026 (42nd and 84th Amendments). This avoids penalising States that controlled population.
- The 2002 Commission redrew boundaries on the 2001 census without changing seat totals.
- The Women’s Reservation Act (106th Amendment, 2023) will take effect only after the next delimitation.
- That is why the debate between southern and northern States matters for Mains.
Prelims trap. Election disputes go to the High Court, not the Chief Election Commissioner (2012). Delimitation orders, unlike election results, cannot be challenged in court.
What UPSC asks: Prelims: four commissions (2024); orders final (2012). Mains: seat freeze and North–South balance. Next likely angle: delimitation after the next census; women’s reservation.
Mains box: analysis and answer points
- 2026: right to vote and roll revision; North–South seat balance.
Practice
Practice MCQs (8)
Electors Photo Identity Cards (EPIC) were introduced in which year?
Answer (b) & explanation
The Election Commission introduced Electors Photo Identity Cards (EPIC) in 1993, under T.N. Seshan, to curb impersonation and bogus voting. Today every elector is issued an EPIC, and other notified documents can also be used at the booth. The other years mark different reforms: section 61A for EVMs came into force in March 1989, and the 2004 Lok Sabha election was the first held with EVMs in every constituency. The card has moved with technology: on National Voters' Day 2021 the Commission launched e-EPIC, a downloadable PDF version, and the Election Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021 allowed electors to share their Aadhaar number with the Electoral Registration Officer on a voluntary basis to clean up duplicate entries. In G. Niranjan (2023) the Commission told the Supreme Court that giving Aadhaar is not mandatory. An elector without an EPIC can still vote by showing one of the alternative photo documents notified by the Commission.
Which Act mainly provides for the preparation of electoral rolls and the allocation of seats in Parliament and State Legislatures?
Answer (c) & explanation
The RPA 1950 is the 'pre-election' Act: it provides for the allocation of seats in Parliament and the State Legislatures (First and Second Schedules), the delimitation of constituencies through orders, the qualifications of voters and the preparation of electoral rolls, along with the officers who prepare them. The RPA 1951 is the 'election and after' Act: conduct of elections, qualifications and disqualifications of members, corrupt practices, registration of parties and election disputes. The Delimitation Act, 2002 set up the last Delimitation Commission, and the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963 provides legislatures for certain UTs. Section 16 of the RPA 1950 lists who cannot be registered: a non- citizen, a person declared of unsound mind by a competent court, or a person disqualified under election law.
Consider the following statements:
1. Corrupt practices at elections are defined in the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
2. Election disputes are dealt with under the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct. Corrupt practices are defined in section 123 of the RPA 1951, which lists bribery, undue influence, appeals on grounds of religion, race, caste, community or language, promotion of enmity, booth capturing and similar acts. Election disputes are dealt with in Part VI of the same 1951 Act (sections 79 to 122), which provides for election petitions in the High Court and appeals to the Supreme Court. The 1950 Act is confined to seats, rolls and voter qualifications. Both corrupt practices and electoral offences sit in Part VII of the 1951 Act: section 123 defines corrupt practices, which can void an election, while sections 125 to 136 define electoral offences, such as promoting enmity, booth capturing or removing ballot papers, which are crimes punished by courts. A single act can be both: promoting enmity on grounds of religion is a corrupt practice under 123(3A) and an offence under section 125.
Which section of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 defines corrupt practices such as bribery and undue influence?
Answer (a) & explanation
Section 123 of the RPA 1951 lists the corrupt practices: bribery (123(1)), undue influence (123(2)), an appeal to vote or refrain from voting on grounds of religion, race, caste, community or language (123(3)), promotion of enmity between classes (123(3A)), hiring vehicles to carry voters, incurring expenses beyond the limit, and booth capturing (123(8)). In Abhiram Singh (2017) a seven-judge Bench read 123(3) to bar appeals based on the religion or caste of the voter as well. Section 8 deals with disqualification on conviction, section 77 with the account of election expenses and section 29A with registration of political parties. Abhiram Singh was decided on 2 January 2017 by a 4:3 majority; the minority held that the provision was about the candidate's religion only.
With reference to election petitions under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, consider the following statements:
1. An appeal against a High Court's decision on an election petition lies to the President.
2. An election petition must generally be presented within forty-five days from the date of election of the returned candidate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Statement 2 is correct: under section 81 of the RPA 1951, an election petition may be presented by a candidate or an elector within 45 days from the date of election of the returned candidate. Statement 1 is incorrect: under section 116A, an appeal against a High Court's order lies to the Supreme Court, to be filed within 30 days. The President comes in elsewhere: under Articles 103 and 192 he (or the Governor) decides whether a sitting member has become disqualified, on the Election Commission's opinion, and under section 8A the President decides on disqualification for a corrupt practice. Under section 86(1), the High Court must dismiss a petition that does not meet the filing requirements of sections 81, 82 or 117, such as the security for costs; so the 45-day limit is strictly enforced.
Which one of the following is NOT dealt with by the Representation of the People Act, 1950?
Answer (c) & explanation
Corrupt practices are defined in section 123 of the RPA 1951, not in the 1950 Act. The RPA 1950 deals with the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Legislatures (First and Second Schedules), the preparation and revision of electoral rolls, the qualifications for registration as a voter (citizenship, age 18 on the qualifying date, ordinary residence) and the officers responsible for these tasks. Everything that concerns the conduct of the poll and its aftermath, including corrupt practices and election petitions, is in the 1951 Act. Since the Election Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021, section 14(b) has four qualifying dates in a year (1 January, 1 April, 1 July and 1 October), so a young person can enrol soon after turning 18 instead of waiting a full year.
With reference to overseas electors, consider the following statements:
1. An Indian citizen living abroad who has not acquired the citizenship of another country can be registered as an elector in the constituency of his or her residence in India as given in the passport.
2. The provision for such overseas electors was inserted in the Representation of the People Act, 1950 in 2010.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Both statements are correct. Section 20A of the RPA 1950, inserted by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 2010, lets a citizen of India who has not acquired the citizenship of another country and is absent from his place of ordinary residence in India owing to employment, education or otherwise, be registered as an overseas elector in the constituency of the Indian address given in the passport. Overseas electors must vote in person at the polling station; proxy or postal voting for them has been proposed but not enacted. Overseas electors apply on Form 6A and must show their original passport at the polling station. A bill to let them vote through proxies, the Representation of the People (Amendment) Bill, 2017, was passed by the Lok Sabha in August 2018 but lapsed when that Lok Sabha was dissolved in 2019.
The Conduct of Election Rules, which govern matters such as the form of ballots, voting procedure and limits on election expenses, were framed in which year?
Answer (d) & explanation
The Conduct of Election Rules were framed in 1961 by the Central Government, in consultation with the Election Commission, under section 169 of the RPA 1951. They govern nomination forms, the form of ballot papers and EVMs, voting procedure including postal ballots and proxies, counting and recount (Rule 63), and the maximum election expenditure (Rule 90). The RPA 1950 and 1951 are the parent Acts, and the first general election ran from October 1951 to February 1952, before these Rules existed. The Rules have been amended many times: Rules 49A to 49X, inserted in 1992, cover voting by EVMs, and Rule 49-O once let a voter record a decision not to vote, a route replaced in practice by the NOTA button after the PUCL judgment of 2013. Rule 49MA covers a voter's complaint that the VVPAT slip does not match the vote cast. So the 1961 Rules remain the working manual for polling day.
0 / 0 correct
Prelims PYQs on this topic (8)
Consider the following statements :
- 1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
- 2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
- 3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
None of the statements is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong: Article 71(2) says acts done by the President before the election is declared void stay valid. Statement 2 is wrong: the election cannot be put off because some Assemblies stand dissolved, and under Article 71(4) the poll cannot be questioned on that ground. Statement 3 is wrong: Article 111 sets no time limit for assent. The President may give assent, withhold it, or return a non-money Bill once.
Notice the recent debate. In 2025, a Supreme Court bench set timelines for Governors in a Tamil Nadu case, but on a Presidential Reference later that year, a Constitution Bench held that courts cannot impose such fixed timelines. This is why people speak of the President's pocket veto.
"None" feels risky, so students force one statement to be true. Write T or F against each line first, then trust the count.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India :
- 1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
- 2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
- 3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
- 4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Only statement 4 is correct (a). Statement 1 is wrong: only elected members of Parliament and of State Assemblies, including Delhi and Puducherry, vote; nominated members are left out. Statement 2 is wrong: an MLA's vote value is the State's 1971 population divided by its elected seats, then by 1,000, so more seats for the same population means a lower value. Statement 3 is wrong: a Kerala MLA's vote (152) is worth more than a Madhya Pradesh MLA's (131). Statement 4 is right: Puducherry's value (16) is higher than Arunachal's (8), for the reason given.
Notice that Uttar Pradesh has the highest value, 208, and Sikkim the lowest, 7. An MP's vote is the total value of all MLAs divided by the number of elected MPs, about 700.
statement 2 sounds logical but has the ratio upside down. Population is on top, seats below.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :
- 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
- 2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
- 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
- 4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct (a). Statement 1 is right: under Rule 8 of the Lok Sabha's Rules of Procedure, the election of the Deputy Speaker is held on a date the Speaker fixes. Statement 2 is wrong: no rule ties the post to the opposition or the ruling party; giving it to the opposition is only a custom. Statement 3 is right: when presiding, the Deputy Speaker has the Speaker's full powers, and no appeal lies against his rulings. Statement 4 is wrong: the motion is moved by a member, not by the Speaker.
Notice that Article 93 says the Lok Sabha "shall" choose a Deputy Speaker, yet the post stayed vacant through the whole 17th Lok Sabha (2019–24). The Deputy Speaker sends any resignation to the Speaker.
"mandatory provision" for what is only a convention.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
- 2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
- 3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
No official answer (question dropped) & notes
UPSC dropped this question from evaluation, so no answer was scored. The likely trouble was statement 2: Devi Lal did contest from three Lok Sabha seats in 1991 (Sikar, Rohtak and Ferozepur), but the wording was disputed. The current law is clear. Statement 1 is wrong: since 1996, Section 33(7) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 lets a candidate contest from at most two constituencies. Statement 3 is wrong: no rule makes the party pay for bye-elections; the Election Commission has only suggested that the candidate pay.
Notice that a winner of two seats must quit one within 14 days under Section 70. Before 1996, there was no limit on the number of seats.
UPSC did not evaluate this question, so no official answer exists. Use it for practice only.
UPSC dropped this question from evaluation; there is no official answer.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.
- 2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong because Article 164(4) lets a non-member be a State minister for six months, but that person must be qualified to become an MLA. That requires a minimum age of 25, not just being a voter, who can be 18. Statement 2 is wrong because, under Section 8(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a person sentenced to two years or more is disqualified from the date of conviction for the period of the sentence plus six years after release, not permanently.
In Lily Thomas (2013), the Court removed the protection that let sitting MPs and MLAs keep their seats while appealing. Notice the 2025 debate on a lifetime ban for convicted politicians, which the Centre opposed.
"eligible to vote" (age 18) slipped in for "qualified to be a member" (age 25).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
- 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only statement 2 is correct (b). Statement 1 is wrong because it was the 39th Amendment (1975), passed during the Emergency, that added Article 329A. It placed the election of the Prime Minister and Speaker beyond the courts, after the Allahabad High Court set aside Indira Gandhi's election. The Supreme Court struck down part of it in Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975), and the 44th Amendment (1978) removed it. Statement 2 is right because the 99th Amendment (2014) set up the National Judicial Appointments Commission. In 2015, in the Fourth Judges case, the Court struck it down for violating judicial independence, part of the basic structure.
So the collegium system continues. Notice the ongoing debate on the Memorandum of Procedure for judicial appointments.
39th and 44th are a pair: one did the damage, the other undid it. UPSC swapped them.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Mains PYQs on this topic (2)
- UPSC Mains 2026 · GS Paper II · Q4Is the right to vote a fundamental right? Discuss the position of the Election Commission of India while undertaking the revision of electoral rolls. Can it also examine the question of citizenship of voters?How to approach: Intro: Article 326 and adult suffrage. Body: case law on the nature of the right; legal basis of roll revision (Article 324, RP Act 1950); the citizenship quest…
- UPSC Mains 2024 · GS Paper II · Q1Examine the need for electoral reforms as suggested by various committees with particular reference to “one nation — one election” principle.How to approach: Intro: Free and fair elections are part of the basic structure. Body: (1) Committees; (2) Case for ONOE; (3) Concerns. Conclusion: ONOE needs wide consensus. Re…
Write an answer
In 150 words, explain the significance of Elections with one recent example.
Flashcards (8)
Which Article gives adult suffrage?
Article 326.
Who can file a nomination for Lok Sabha?
Any citizen whose name is on the electoral roll of any constituency.
Maximum constituencies a candidate can
contest? Two (since 1996).
Is the right to vote a fundamental right?
No, a statutory right; casting a vote is expression under Art 19(1)(a).
Which case set limits on deleting names
from rolls? Lal Babu Hussein (1995).
How many Delimitation Commissions so
far? Four: 1952, 1963, 1973, 2002.
Can delimitation orders be challenged in
court? No.
Until when are seat totals frozen?
Until the first census after 2026.
Read more: related explainers
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Next topic · 22.2 →Elections: Parties, Model Code and EVMsSyllabus: GS-II · Salient features of the Representation of People’s Act.