UPSC Prelims PYQs with explanations

Real questions from official papers, mapped to syllabus topics. Attempt each one; the answer and the reason appear instantly.

UPSC Prelims 2026 · GS Paper I

Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct ?

  • 1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
  • 2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
  • 3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.

Select the answer using the code given below :

Answer (d) & explanation

Only statement 2 is correct (d). Statement 2 is right: under Section 173(3) of the BNSS, for certain offences the officer may hold a preliminary enquiry, with permission of an officer not below Deputy Superintendent of Police. Statement 1 is wrong: a Zero FIR may be lodged anywhere only for a cognizable offence; adding "non-cognizable" makes it wrong. Statement 3 is wrong: information can be given orally or electronically; electronic filing is a choice, not a duty. So options (a), (b) and (c) fail.

Notice the idea: "zero" because the FIR gets no regular number until it is transferred to the police station with jurisdiction. BNSS, along with the BNS and BSA, replaced the CrPC, IPC and Evidence Act from 1 July 2024.

Trap

one extra word ("non-cognizable") and one strong word ("obligatory"). Both turn a true idea false.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · GS Paper I

Which one of the following best describes the 'Crowding Out Effect' in the context of fiscal policy ?

Answer (b) & explanation

Crowding out means government borrowing raises interest rates and cuts private investment (b). When the government borrows heavily, it competes with companies for the same pool of savings. Interest rates rise, and some private projects no longer pay, so private investment is pushed out. Option (a) is wrong: it describes the opposite, "crowding in". Option (c) is wrong: higher taxes usually reduce, not raise, private spending. Option (d) is wrong: government spending does affect aggregate demand.

Notice the policy link: this is why high fiscal deficits worry the RBI and investors. India's FRBM Act (2003) set limits on deficits. The Centre aims to cut its fiscal deficit below 4.5% of GDP and then shift to a debt-to-GDP target.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)

What is the minimum number of times one needs to measure to get 298 litres of water from a tank, if the measuring cylinders have capacities 1 litre, 6 litres, 25 litres and 100 litres?

Answer (b) & explanation

The minimum is 5 measures (b). Step 1: adding only, the best is 2 × 100 + 2 × 25 + 8 × 6 = 298, which needs 12 measures. That is not an option, so think about taking water out too. Step 2: 298 = 3 × 100 − 2 × 1. Pour in 100 litres three times, then remove 1 litre twice: 5 measures. Step 3: could 4 work? 3 × 100 leaves 2 litres to remove, and no single cylinder holds 2 litres, so 4 is impossible. Options (a), (c) and (d) fail.

Tip: when adding gives too many steps, try overshooting and subtracting. Measuring questions often allow both pouring in and taking out.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)
Read the passage

Cattle from the nearby villages came to the common ground to graze, and there was still a cool freshness in the air. Hori took several deep breaths and thought of sitting down for a while, since he’d be dying of heat in the scorching ‘loo’ wind the rest of the day. A number of farmers were eager to lease this bit of land and had offered a good price, but Rai Sahib—God bless him—had plainly told them it was reserved for grazing and would not be relinquished for any price. If he’d been one of those selfish Zamindars, he’d have said the cattle could go to hell, that there was no reason for him to miss the chance to make a little money. But the Rai Sahib still held to the old values, feeling that any landlord who didn’t look after his tenants was less than human.

Which of the following conclusions is/are correct?

  • 1. All landlords essentially have some goodness trapped within them.
  • 2. The common grazing grounds of a village are intended for use by the cattle of that village.
  • 3. Landlords who believe in tradition tend to be more concerned about their tenants.
  • 4. Winds later in the day tend to be cooler post the hot winds of the morning.

Select the answer using the code given below.

Answer (c) & explanation

Only conclusion 3 is correct (c). Step 1: Rai Sahib "held to the old values", believing a landlord who did not look after his tenants was "less than human". So tradition-minded landlords care more for tenants (3). Step 2: conclusion 1 says all landlords have goodness; but the passage mentions "selfish Zamindars". Conclusion 2 says the grazing land is for the cattle of that village; but cattle came "from the nearby villages". Step 3: conclusion 4 says winds get cooler later; but Hori expects the scorching "loo" for the rest of the day. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.

Tip: check small details like "nearby villages" and time of day. This passage is from Premchand's novel Godaan (1936).

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · GS Paper I

Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India :

  • 1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595 — 596).
  • 2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.
  • 3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

Answer (d) & explanation

All three statements are correct (d). Statement 1 is right: the Mankani (Sankheda) plates from Gujarat, of AD 595–596, are the earliest dated Indian record that writes numbers by place value. Statement 2 is right: by the 9th century, the method is common in inscriptions all over India. Statement 3 is right: Khmer and Sumatran Sanskrit inscriptions of the 7th century, from AD 683 onward, already use place-value numbers and a zero. So options (a), (b) and (c) fail.

Notice the Gwalior inscription (876 AD), famous for its clear zero, and the Bakhshali manuscript, which uses a dot for zero. Aryabhata and Brahmagupta advanced the system, which Arabs passed to Europe as "Hindu-Arabic" numerals.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · GS Paper I

Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India ?

Answer (c) & explanation

The Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project was India's first (c). REDD+ pays communities for keeping forests standing, through carbon credits. Plan Vivo is a standard for community-led projects. India's first such project is the Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project around Mawphlang, Meghalaya, run by a federation of Khasi village councils (hima). Options (a), (b) and (d), the Uttarakhand, ICFRE-ICIMOD and Sikkim Mamley Kamrang projects, came later or use other routes.

Notice why Mawphlang is famous: its sacred grove, a forest protected by local beliefs. REDD+ stands for Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and forest Degradation, plus conservation and sustainable management. It is recognised under Article 5 of the Paris Agreement.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · GS Paper I

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

Answer (d) & explanation

The pair 33 Corps : Srinagar is wrong (d). 33 Corps (Trishakti Corps) has its headquarters at Sukna near Siliguri, guarding Sikkim and the Siliguri Corridor. Srinagar hosts 15 Corps (Chinar Corps). Option (a) is correct: 3 Corps (Spear Corps) is at Dimapur. Option (b) is correct: 4 Corps (Gajraj Corps) is at Tezpur. Option (c) is correct: 14 Corps (Fire and Fury) is at Leh, facing Ladakh and the Siachen glacier.

Notice the structure: the Army has seven operational Commands, plus a training command, divided into Corps. The Siliguri Corridor, the "Chicken's Neck", is only about 22 km wide, which is why Trishakti Corps is so vital.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)

Question : X receives three coins of different denominations : 1, 2, 5, 10 and 20. If the total amount received by X is m, does X receive a coin of denomination 5?

Statement I : m is not a prime number.

Statement II : The sum of the digits of m is greater than 5.

Answer (a) & explanation

Statement II alone is enough; Statement I alone is not (a). Step 1: three different coins from 1, 2, 5, 10, 20 give ten totals. With a 5: 8, 16, 17, 26, 27, 35. Without a 5: 13, 23, 31, 32. Step 2: Statement I (m not prime): 8, 16, 26, 27, 35 have a 5, but 32 (2 + 10 + 20) does not. Mixed answers, so I fails. Step 3: Statement II (digit sum above 5): 8, 16, 17, 26, 27, 35 qualify, and every one has a 5. (13, 23, 31, 32 have digit sums 4, 5, 4, 5.) So II answers "yes". Options (b), (c) and (d) fail.

Tip: when cases are few, list them all. Then check each statement against the full list.

Trap

don't assume both statements are needed. Listing all ten cases takes thirty seconds and settles it.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)

P, Q, R, S and T are ranked 1 to 5 (not necessarily in that order). The rank of P is 4, the rank of Q is not 5, the rank of R is 1, the rank of S is not 2, the rank of T is not 3. Then which of the following is/are correct?

  • I. If the rank of S is 3, then that of T is 2.
  • II. If the rank of Q is 3, then that of T is 5.

Select the answer using the code given below.

Answer (d) & explanation

Neither statement is correct (d). Step 1: P = 4 and R = 1 are fixed. Ranks 2, 3 and 5 remain for Q, S and T, with rules: Q is not 5, S is not 2, T is not 3. Step 2: statement I: if S = 3, then Q and T share 2 and 5. Q cannot be 5, so Q = 2 and T = 5, not 2. I is wrong. Step 3: statement II: if Q = 3, then S and T share 2 and 5. S cannot be 2, so S = 5 and T = 2, not 5. II is wrong. Options (a), (b) and (c) fail.

Tip: fix the known ranks first, then apply each "if" condition and let the "not" rules decide the rest. Write the small table on paper.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)

An alloy P contains 20% copper and 80% zinc by weight. Another alloy Q contains 60% copper and 40% zinc by weight. A third alloy R is to be prepared from P and Q so that it contains equal amount of copper and zinc. In what ratio, amounts of P and Q be mixed in order to get R?

Answer (a) & explanation

P and Q must be mixed in the ratio 1 : 3 (a). Step 1: "equal copper and zinc" means R is 50% copper. Step 2: use alligation on copper: P has 20%, Q has 60%, and the mix needs 50%. P : Q = (60 − 50) : (50 − 20) = 10 : 30. Step 3: simplify to 1 : 3. Check: 1 kg P gives 0.2 kg copper; 3 kg Q gives 1.8 kg; total 2 kg copper in 4 kg = 50% ✓. Option (b) reverses the ratio. Options (c) and (d) fail.

Tip: in alligation, the amount of each item is the distance of the other item from the mean. Always check with a quick calculation.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · GS Paper I

Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the :

Answer (d) & explanation

Mallikarjun Mansur represented the Jaipur-Atrauli gharana (d). Mallikarjun Mansur (1910–1992) from Dharwad was a khayal singer of the Jaipur-Atrauli gharana, founded by Alladiya Khan. He trained with Manji Khan and Bhurji Khan, Alladiya Khan's sons. Options (a), (b) and (c), Agra, Gwalior and Patiala, are wrong. He received the Padma Vibhushan.

Notice Dharwad's musical riches: it also gave Bhimsen Joshi and Gangubai Hangal, both of the Kirana gharana, and Kumar Gandharva trained nearby. The Jaipur-Atrauli style is known for complex, rare ragas. Kesarbai Kerkar and Kishori Amonkar were other famous singers of this gharana.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · GS Paper I

Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.

Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X's actions ?

Answer (c) & explanation

Accountability is shown (c). Mr. X treated himself as answerable to the public for the money spent and for citizens' health. He did not hide the problem: he reported the provider to the vigilance authority and halted the faulty contract, owning the result of his office. Option (a) is wrong: esprit de corps is team spirit and loyalty within a group. Option (b) is wrong: equity means fairness between groups of people. Option (d) is wrong: delegation is passing work down to juniors. None of these fits his action.

Notice the wider idea: accountability has two parts, answerability (explaining your decisions) and enforceability (facing consequences). Tools like the CVC, the RTI Act and social audits make it real in Indian administration.

Trap

a case study with four textbook terms. Name what the officer actually did, then match the word.

UPSC repeats traps like this year after year. The PYQ Book gathers every trap in one place, so you see them coming. Try the free sample

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · GS Paper I

Which of the following statements with regard to India’s indigenous new high resolution weather model, the ‘Bharat Forecast System,’ is/are correct ?

  • 1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level.
  • 2. It was developed by IIT Delhi.

Select the answer using the code given below :

Answer (a) & explanation

Only statement 1 is correct (a). Statement 1 is right: the Bharat Forecast System (BFS), launched in May 2025, runs at about 6 km resolution, fine enough for forecasts at the level of panchayat clusters. Statement 2 is wrong: it was developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, and runs on the Arka supercomputer, not at IIT Delhi. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.

Notice the advance: earlier global models ran at about 12 km, so BFS gives much sharper local forecasts of heavy rain and cyclones. It is among the world's highest-resolution operational models. IITM works under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, alongside the IMD. Better forecasts help farmers and disaster management.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)
Read the passage

Sport is not just about winning medals or getting jobs through a sports quota. Today’s generation is struggling with issues like depression and anxiety. Parents often say that their children are inactive and rarely leave the house. Sport can help tackle these problems. From sport you can learn time management, fitness, teamwork, coordination, and so much more. We need to develop a culture in which sport is seen as a way of life—a path to building a healthier, happier society.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  • 1. Parents are not encouraging enough when it comes to children playing sport.
  • 2. Participation in sporting activities can help develop life skills.
  • 3. Sport as a way of life can help evolve the very nature of society itself.

Select the answer using the code given below.

Answer (b) & explanation

Statements 2 and 3 are correct (b). Step 1: statement 2 matches the line that sport teaches "time management, fitness, teamwork, coordination". These are life skills. Step 2: statement 3 matches the closing line: sport as a way of life is "a path to building a healthier, happier society". Step 3: statement 1 blames parents for not encouraging sport. The passage only says parents report that children are inactive; it never blames them. So options (a), (c) and (d) fail.

Tip: do not turn a reporter into a culprit. When the passage quotes someone's complaint, it does not mean that person caused the problem.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)

P has a son and a daughter. S is the mother of T. S is R's spouse. Q and R are children of P. Then how is Q related to S?

Answer (d) & explanation

Q is the sister of S's husband (d). Step 1: S is T's mother, so S is a woman. S is R's spouse, so R is a man. Step 2: Q and R are P's children, and P has one son and one daughter. R is the son, so Q is the daughter. Step 3: Q is R's sister, and R is S's husband. So Q is the sister of the husband of S (her sister-in-law). Options (a), (b) and (c) give wrong relations.

Tip: in blood-relation puzzles, first fix genders from clues like "mother" and "spouse". Then draw a small family tree.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)

You are required to design a 'questionnaire' to be filled on-location by visitors, based on the following objective while writing a report :

"To determine the feasibility of setting up a family-oriented vacation resort in the vicinity of a lake destination in the mountains"

Which of the following heads would you include in the questionnaire to make it most appropriate for your purpose?

  • 1. Size of family
  • 2. Budget
  • 3. Number of earners in the family
  • 4. Food allergies and dietary restrictions

Select the answer using the code given below.

Answer (c) & explanation

Heads 1 and 2 only should be included (c). Step 1: the goal is to test the feasibility of a family resort: will there be demand, and at what price? Step 2: family size (1) shows the kind of rooms needed. Budget (2) shows what visitors will spend, which sets pricing. Both bear directly on feasibility. Step 3: number of earners (3) is personal, and its effect already shows in the budget. Food allergies (4) matter for running the resort later, not for deciding whether to build it. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.

Tip: include only questions that serve the stated objective. Extra personal questions also reduce response rates in surveys.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · GS Paper I

Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean ?

  • 1. Bahrain
  • 2. Syria
  • 3. Qatar
  • 4. Egypt

Select the answer using the code given below :

Answer (b) & explanation

Bahrain and Qatar must cross the Strait of Hormuz (b). The Strait of Hormuz, between Iran and Oman, is the only sea exit from the Persian Gulf. Items 1 and 3 are right: Bahrain and Qatar lie wholly inside the Gulf, so their ships must pass it. Item 2 is wrong: Syria is on the Mediterranean. Item 4 is wrong: Egypt reaches the Indian Ocean through the Suez Canal and the Red Sea. So options (a), (c) and (d) fail.

Notice its importance: about a fifth of the world's oil passes through Hormuz, and much of India's crude and LNG (Qatar is a top LNG supplier). Iran's threats to close it raise prices. The UAE's pipeline to Fujairah and Saudi pipelines to the Red Sea help bypass it.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · GS Paper I

With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details :

| Sl. No. | Organisation | Function | Controlling Union Ministry

| 1. | Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) | To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies | Ministry of Home Affairs

| 2. | Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) | To investigate complex corporate frauds | Ministry of Finance

| 3. | Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) | To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy | Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension

In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched ?

Answer (a) & explanation

Only one row is correctly matched (a). Row 3 is right: the CBI works under the Department of Personnel and Training, Ministry of Personnel, and the function quoted is from its mission statement. Row 1 is wrong: the CEIB is under the Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue), not Home Affairs. Row 2 is wrong: the SFIO works under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not Finance. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.

Notice the origins: the CBI grew from the Special Police Establishment (1941), got its name in 1963 on the Santhanam Committee's advice, and draws its powers from the DSPE Act, 1946. The SFIO got statutory status under the Companies Act, 2013. The CEIB coordinates agencies like the DRI and ED.

Trap

rows where the function is right but the ministry is wrong. Check the last column on its own.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · GS Paper I

Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct ?

  • 1. Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs).
  • 2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India.
  • 3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector.
  • 4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements.

Select the answer using the code given below :

Answer (a) & explanation

Statements 1 and 3 are correct (a). Statement 1 is right: REEs are used in magnets, chips, batteries and satellites for AI, robotics and space. Statement 3 is right: the National Critical Mineral Mission was approved in January 2025 for self-reliance. Statement 2 is wrong: China leads mining by far, but the next producers are the USA, Myanmar and Australia, not India. Statement 4 is wrong: there are 17 rare earths, the 15 lanthanides plus scandium and yttrium. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.

Notice India's position: it has about 6% of world REE reserves, mainly in monazite beach sands of Kerala, Odisha and Tamil Nadu, mined by IREL. China also controls most REE processing.

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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UPSC Prelims 2026 · CSAT (Paper II)

There are four types of weights, namely 1 kg, 2 kg, 5 kg and 10 kg. What is the maximum number of different ways one can measure 20 kg, if at least eight but not more than eleven weights of 1 kg are to be used while measuring?

Answer (b) & explanation

There are 8 ways (b). Step 1: with eight 1 kg weights, we need 12 kg from 2, 5 and 10 kg weights (no more 1s): 10 + 2, 5 + 5 + 2, and six 2s: 3 ways. Step 2: with nine 1 kg, we need 11 kg: only 5 + 2 + 2 + 2: 1 way. Step 3: with ten 1 kg, we need 10 kg: 10, 5 + 5, five 2s: 3 ways. With eleven 1 kg, we need 9 kg: 5 + 2 + 2: 1 way. Total = 3 + 1 + 3 + 1 = 8. Options (a), (c) and (d) miscount.

Tip: fix one variable at a time and count the rest. Here, fixing the number of 1 kg weights keeps the cases clean.

Trap

an odd remainder needs exactly one 5 (two or more would be too much or leave an odd gap).

Fell for this one? Most aspirants do. The PYQ Book puts every UPSC trap side by side, so the pattern finally clicks. Try the free sample

Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.

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