UPSC Prelims PYQs with explanations
Real questions from official papers, mapped to syllabus topics. Attempt each one; the answer and the reason appear instantly.
Read the passage
Cattle from the nearby villages came to the common ground to graze, and there was still a cool freshness in the air. Hori took several deep breaths and thought of sitting down for a while, since he’d be dying of heat in the scorching ‘loo’ wind the rest of the day. A number of farmers were eager to lease this bit of land and had offered a good price, but Rai Sahib—God bless him—had plainly told them it was reserved for grazing and would not be relinquished for any price. If he’d been one of those selfish Zamindars, he’d have said the cattle could go to hell, that there was no reason for him to miss the chance to make a little money. But the Rai Sahib still held to the old values, feeling that any landlord who didn’t look after his tenants was less than human.
Which of the following statements are not correct?
- 1. The landholdings of Rai Sahib were currently not being used for farming.
- 2. Temperamentally, Rai Sahib was as greedy as other landlords.
- 3. It cannot be ascertained that Rai Sahib could have made some money by leasing out the grazing land.
- 4. It may be asserted that Rai Sahib valued his tenants and wanted to protect their livelihood.
Select the answer using the code given below.
Answer (d) & explanation
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are not correct (d). Step 1: statement 1 says his land was not used for farming. The passage says only "this bit of land" was kept for grazing; nothing about the rest. So 1 overreaches. Step 2: statement 2 calls him greedy like others. But he refused a good price, unlike "selfish Zamindars". So 2 is wrong. Step 3: statement 3 says his possible earnings cannot be ascertained. But farmers "had offered a good price", so he clearly could have earned. So 3 is wrong. Statement 4, that he valued his tenants, is correct. Options (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Tip: in "not correct" questions, find the one true statement first; the rest are your answer.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns :
- I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels.
- II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered.
- III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms.
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements ?
- 1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.
- 2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.
- 3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.
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Answer (a) & explanation
Inferences 1 and 2 can be drawn (a). Inference 1 is right: hand spindle-whorls in houses but no spinning wheels mean slow, laborious spinning done at home. Inference 2 is right: graded scales and standard weights show the Harappans' measurement skill and scientific knowledge. Inference 3 is wrong: large private houses with their own wells and courtyards point to private wealth and inequality, the opposite of common property. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the standard weights: mostly cubical chert, following a binary then decimal system (1, 2, 4, 8 … 16, then 32, 64). A graded scale was found at Lothal and a shell scale at Mohenjo-daro. Cotton cloth was a Harappan first.
Read III again: "their own wells" is the clue. Private ownership, not shared property.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct ?
- 1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease.
- 2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine.
- 3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (c). Statement 1 is right: genetic medicines correct or make up for the faulty genes behind a disease, by adding a working copy, silencing a bad gene or editing a small stretch. Statement 2 is right: they are delivered by engineered viruses, such as AAV, or lipid nanoparticles, the carrier used in mRNA vaccines. Statement 3 is wrong: no therapy rewrites the entire genome. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice India's progress: its first home-grown CAR-T cell therapy for cancer, NexCAR19 (2023), and a successful gene therapy trial for haemophilia at CMC Vellore. CRISPR-based Casgevy was the first approved gene-editing cure, for sickle cell disease.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct ?
- 1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
- 2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
- 3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.
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Answer (b) & explanation
Only statement 2 is correct (b). Statement 2 is right: the Revamped RGSA aims to build the governance capacity of Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the SDGs. Statement 1 is wrong: it was approved in 2022 to run from 2022-23 to 2025-26, not from April 2021. Statement 3 is wrong: funding is shared 60:40 with States (90:10 for north-eastern and hill States); only Union Territories get 100%. So options (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the link: the RGSA uses the Localisation of SDGs approach through nine themes, such as poverty-free and healthy villages. The 73rd Amendment (1992) gave Panchayats constitutional status. 24 April is National Panchayati Raj Day.
"100% for all" is the giveaway. Centrally sponsored schemes almost always share costs with States.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Question : For two distinct real numbers x and y, which of them is bigger?
Statement I : x2 < y < 1
Statement II : y < √x < 1
Answer (d) & explanation
Even both statements together are not enough (d). Step 1: together they give x² < y < √x, with √x < 1, so x is between 0 and 1. Step 2: test x = 1/4. Then x² = 1/16 and √x = 1/2, so y can be anywhere between 0.0625 and 0.5. Step 3: y = 0.1 is smaller than x (0.25); y = 0.4 is bigger than x. Both fit, so we cannot say which is bigger. Options (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Tip: for numbers between 0 and 1, x² < x < √x. So x itself sits inside the range for y, and y can fall on either side. Test with x = 1/4; it gives clean numbers.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Two identical straight rods are painted in five distinct colours so that each of them gets divided into five equal parts along the length. In one of them, the portions are marked P1, P2, P3, P4 and P5 (not necessarily in that order) whereas in the other, they are marked Q1, Q2, Q3, Q4 and Q5 (not necessarily in that order). When the rods are kept parallel to each other side by side, P1 and Q3 match, P4 matches Q1 or Q2, and Q4 matches P3 or P5. If Q3 and Q5 are adjacent, which of the following is/are possible?
- I. Q3 is marked at the middle portion of the straight rod.
- II. P2 is marked at one of the extreme portions of the straight rod.
Select the answer using the code given below.
Answer (c) & explanation
Both statements are possible (c). Step 1: "possible" needs just one arrangement that fits all rules. Number the portions 1 to 5 on each rod. Step 2: try rod Q: Q1, Q2, Q3, Q5, Q4 and rod P: P2, P4, P1, P5, P3. Step 3: check the rules: P1 and Q3 both sit at position 3 ✓; P4 is at 2, beside Q2 ✓; Q4 is at 5, beside P3 ✓; Q3 and Q5 are adjacent ✓. In this arrangement, Q3 is in the middle (I) and P2 is at an end (II). So both are possible, and options (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Tip: for "possible" questions, build one valid example. For "must be true", you would need to check every case.
'possible' asks for one example, not for something that is always true.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
A is a 2-digit number with different digits. B is also a 2-digit number and is obtained by reversing the digits of A. If A – B is a multiple of 27, where A > B, how many such different A's are possible?
Answer (b) & explanation
Nine such numbers are possible (b). Step 1: let A = 10a + b and B = 10b + a, with a > b. Then A − B = 9(a − b). Step 2: for this to be a multiple of 27, a − b must be a multiple of 3: 3, 6 or 9. Step 3: a − b = 3: b = 1 to 6 (A = 41, 52, 63, 74, 85, 96): 6 numbers. a − b = 6: b = 1 to 3 (A = 71, 82, 93): 3. a − b = 9 needs b = 0, making B a one-digit number (09), so it is not allowed. Total = 9. Options (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Tip: A number minus its reverse is always 9 × (digit difference). B must also be two-digit, so the units digit of A cannot be 0.
B must also be a 2-digit number, so 90 is out.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni (‘mistress of the field’) originate ?
Answer (b) & explanation
The term kshetra-patni comes from the Atharvaveda (b). The Atharvaveda, a book of charms and rites, has many farming prayers. It addresses the earth and the field as female and protective, and names the kshetra-patni, wife or mistress of the field. Option (a) is wrong: the Rigveda has Kshetrapati, the male lord of the field. Option (c) is wrong: the Ashtadhyayi is Panini's grammar. Option (d) is wrong: the Arthashastra is Kautilya's work on statecraft.
Notice the Atharvaveda's wider content: spells against disease, for love and harmony, and the famous Prithvi Sukta (hymn to the Earth), with the line "Earth is my mother, I am her son". It also has early medical ideas linked to Ayurveda.
The Rigveda has the male Kshetrapati, which is why (a) looks right.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses.
As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.
Consider the following statements with reference to the above :
- 1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
- 2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
- 3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives — to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
- 4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.
Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process ?
Answer (a) & explanation
Statements 1, 3 and 4 help resolve the conflict (a). The task is mediation. Statement 1 is right: acknowledging the tribal community's cultural concerns first builds trust before any technical talk. Statement 3 is right: a multi-stakeholder platform of tribal leaders, experts and municipal officials brings all sides to one table and lowers tension. Statement 4 is right: an independent ESIA, shared openly, allows evidence-based decisions. Statement 2 is wrong: pushing the project through and calling a community's concern "sentiments of a small group" ends dialogue. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the legal backdrop: the Forest Rights Act, 2006 and PESA, 1996 give Gram Sabhas a say over land and sacred sites, as the Niyamgiri case (2013) showed.
one option that sounds firm and practical. In a mediation question, anything that shuts out one party is out.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements with regard to the film ‘Boong’ :
- 1. The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children’s and Family Film category.
- 2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.
- 3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children’s and Family Film category.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (a) & explanation
All three statements are correct (a). Statement 1 is right: Boong won the BAFTA for Children's and Family Film in February 2026. Statement 2 is right: it was directed by Lakshmipriya Devi, her debut feature. Statement 3 is right: it is the first Indian film to win that category. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the film: made in Manipuri (Meiteilon), it follows a young boy in Manipur searching for his missing father, with the State's ethnic tensions in the background. It beat films like Zootopia 2 and Lilo & Stitch. Meitei is one of the 22 languages in the Eighth Schedule, added by the 71st Amendment (1992) along with Konkani and Nepali.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
A toy T jumps forward or backward. In each forward jump, it moves 5' forward whereas in each backward jump, it moves 2' backward. If in 31 jumps, T moves exactly 15' forward, then what is the difference of the number of forward and backward jumps?
Answer (d) & explanation
The difference is 9 jumps (d). Step 1: let f be forward jumps and b backward jumps. Total jumps: f + b = 31. Net movement: 5f − 2b = 15. Step 2: put b = 31 − f: 5f − 2(31 − f) = 15, so 5f − 62 + 2f = 15, giving 7f = 77 and f = 11. Then b = 20. Step 3: difference = 20 − 11 = 9. Check: 5 × 11 − 2 × 20 = 55 − 40 = 15 ✓. Options (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Tip: two unknowns need two equations: one for the count and one for the total effect. Always check your answer in both.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
How many three-digit numbers can be expressed as an integral power of 2?
Answer (c) & explanation
Three three-digit numbers are powers of 2 (c). Step 1: keep doubling from 1: 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 128, 256, 512, 1024. Step 2: only 128 (2⁷), 256 (2⁸) and 512 (2⁹) have three digits. 1024 (2¹⁰) has four. Step 3: so the count is 3. Options (a), (b) and (d) miscount.
Tip: learn powers of 2 up to 2¹⁰ = 1024. Between any two powers of 10 there are always three or four powers of 2, since 2¹⁰ is about 10³.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to 'circular letters', which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1. Circular letters are usually addressed to a group of people.
- 2. Non-standard and customized content is typical of circular letters.
- 3. Circular letters are used to intimate appraisals and increments of employees within organisations.
- 4. Circular letters are less cost-effective than personalised and specific recipient-directed letters.
Select the answer using the code given below.
Answer (d) & explanation
Only statement 1 is correct (d). Step 1: a circular letter sends the same message to many people, so it is addressed to a group (1 correct). Step 2: statement 2 is wrong: circular content is standard, not customised. Statement 3 is wrong: appraisals and increments are personal, so they go in individual letters. Step 3: statement 4 is wrong: circulars are more cost-effective, since one text serves everyone. So options (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Tip: think of a school circular about a holiday: one message, many readers, low cost. Anything personal or private does not go by circular.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries ?
Answer (a) & explanation
Tungurahua is in Ecuador (a). Tungurahua, meaning "throat of fire", is an active stratovolcano in the Andes of central Ecuador, above the town of Baños. UNESCO named the area around it a Global Geopark in 2025. Options (b), (c) and (d), Peru, Bolivia and Colombia, are wrong, though the Andes pass through all of them too.
Notice Ecuador's other famous volcanoes: Cotopaxi, one of the highest active volcanoes, and Chimborazo, whose summit is the point farthest from Earth's centre, because of the equatorial bulge. Ecuador also owns the Galápagos Islands. A Global Geopark honours geological heritage; India has none yet, though sites like Lonar have been proposed.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India ?
- 1. Employment Policy Convention
- 2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention
- 3. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families
- 4. Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War
- 5. Convention on Reduction of Statelessness
Select the answer using the code given below :
No official answer (question dropped) & notes
UPSC dropped this question from evaluation. Item 2 is ratified: India ratified the ILO Abolition of Forced Labour Convention (No. 105) in 2000. Item 4 is ratified: India ratified the Fourth Geneva Convention on civilians in war in 1950. Item 1 is ratified: India accepted the ILO Employment Policy Convention (No. 122) in 1998. Items 3 and 5 are not ratified: India has not joined the Migrant Workers Convention (1990) or the 1961 Convention on the Reduction of Statelessness. None of options (a) to (d) lists exactly items 3 and 5.
Notice India's wider stance: it has also not signed the 1951 Refugee Convention, preferring to handle refugees case by case. It has ratified six of the eight core ILO conventions.
UPSC did not evaluate this question, so no official answer exists. Use it for practice only.
UPSC dropped this question from evaluation; there is no official answer.
Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct ?
- 1. 'Aviation Hull Insurance' covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment.
- 2. Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Answer (c) & explanation
Both statements are correct (c). Statement 1 is right: hull insurance covers the aircraft itself, its body, engines and on-board equipment. Statement 2 is right: under the Montreal Convention, 1999, which India joined in 2009, the airline is strictly liable for a passenger's death or injury up to a set limit, so the family need not prove fault for that first tier. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice the tiers: above that limit, the airline can escape further payment only by proving it was not negligent. The convention replaced the older Warsaw Convention (1929). In India, it is applied through the Carriage by Air Act, 1972. Passenger and third-party claims fall under liability insurance, not hull cover.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
A cut on a solid object divides the object into two parts where the new surfaces thus produced are plane. On the other hand, one single cut can be used to cut more than one object at a time. In an experiment, the total number of pieces produced by applying n cuts is denoted by xₙ. The experiment is performed on a solid cube where pieces remain unmoved after each cut. In this experiment, if after the third cut, the pieces are identical, then which of the following is not a possible value for x₄?
Answer (a) & explanation
16 is not possible (a). Step 1: three plane cuts that leave identical pieces can give 4 slabs (all parallel), 6 equal pieces (two parallel plus one across), or 8 small cubes (one in each direction). Step 2: a fourth cut can add at most one piece for each piece it passes through. From 4 slabs: 5 to 8 pieces. From 6 pieces: up to 12. From 8 cubes: a single plane can pass through at most 7 of the 8 small cubes, so at most 15. Step 3: so 5, 8 and 12 are possible, but 16 would need the cut to split all 8 cubes, which no plane can do. Options (b), (c) and (d) are possible values.
Tip: a plane can never cut all 8 octants of a cube at once; it misses at least one.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
A person facing the East travels 4 km straight and then turns right and travels 3 km, then further turns left and travels 2 km and finally turns left and travels 3 km. The minimum distance between the final point and the initial point, and the direction in which the person is facing at the final point are, respectively
Answer (d) & explanation
He ends 6 km away, facing North (d). Step 1: trace the path. Facing East, he walks 4 km East. A right turn faces South: 3 km. A left turn faces East: 2 km. A left turn faces North: 3 km. Step 2: South 3 and North 3 cancel out. East total = 4 + 2 = 6 km. So he is 6 km east of the start. Step 3: his last walk was northward, so he is facing North. Option (b) has the right distance but the wrong direction. Options (a) and (c) add the distances wrongly.
Tip: track north-south and east-west separately; opposite moves cancel. The final facing direction is simply the direction of the last walk.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct ?
Answer (c) & explanation
Option (c) is the correct description (c). Bardoli (1928, Surat district) was Vallabhbhai Patel's no-revenue campaign against a 22% land revenue hike. The Eka (unity) movement of 1921–22 rose against rents charged above the recorded amount. Option (a) is wrong: Congress started Eka, but under Madari Pasi it moved outside Congress control. Option (b) is wrong: Eka was led by peasants against taluqdars, and Bardoli was by landholding peasants. Option (d) is wrong: Eka was in Hardoi, Bahraich and Sitapur, and Bardoli is in Gujarat, not Saurashtra.
Notice that Bardoli's women gave Patel the title "Sardar". The Maxwell-Broomfield inquiry cut the hike to 6.03%, a clear win for the peasants.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct ?
- 1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability.
- 2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors.
- 3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs.
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Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (b). Statement 1 is right: a Large Language Model predicts the next word, or token, by giving every candidate a probability, and then picks a likely one. Statement 2 is right: it learns by optimisation, adjusting billions of weights to reduce prediction error on its training text. Statement 3 is wrong: because it learns from human text, it can repeat human bias. So options (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the related risks: hallucination, where an LLM confidently gives false facts, and deepfakes made by generative AI. India's IndiaAI Mission backs Indian-language models such as BharatGen and Sarvam. The "T" in GPT stands for Transformer, the design behind modern LLMs.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.