Making of the Constitution, Preamble, features and schedules: previous-year questions
36 real UPSC Prelims questions (2011–2026) with the official answer and a clear explanation. 11 of them came in the last five papers.
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Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India :
- 1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.
- 2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
- 3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Answer (b) & explanation
There is no correct statement (b). The last Articles of the Constitution answer all three. Statement 1 is wrong: Article 393 gives the short title, "the Constitution of India". Statement 2 is wrong: Article 395 repeals the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935. Statement 3 is wrong: Article 394 says the remaining provisions come into force on 26 January 1950, the "commencement of this Constitution". So options (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the two dates: some provisions, like citizenship, elections and the provisional Parliament, came into force on 26 November 1949, when the Constitution was adopted. The rest began on 26 January 1950, chosen because the Purna Swaraj pledge was made on that day in 1930.
three negative statements in a row. Turn each one positive in your head: "Is there an Article that…?" Then answer.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India :
- 1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
- 2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
- 3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Answer (a) & explanation
Two statements, including statement 2, are correct (a). Statement 1 is wrong: tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are governed by the Sixth Schedule, with Autonomous District Councils; the Fifth Schedule covers Scheduled Areas in other States. Statement 2 is right: Section 10(26) of the Income-tax Act exempts certain income of ST members living in specified north-eastern areas and Ladakh. Statement 3 is right: Article 243D reserves Panchayat seats for SCs and STs, with at least one-third of them for SC and ST women. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the memory trick for the Sixth Schedule: "AMTM". The Fifth Schedule's Tribes Advisory Council and Governor's special powers apply in States like Jharkhand and Odisha.
Fifth and Sixth Schedule swapped. In class I say: Sixth is for the four north-east states, ATMM (Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, Mizoram).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule
- I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration
- II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement I is wrong: under the Fifth Schedule, the State's executive power still covers Scheduled Areas. No local body takes over total administration. What changes is that the Governor reports to the President, can modify laws for these areas, and a Tribes Advisory Council advises. Statement II is wrong: the Union can give the State directions on how to run these areas, but nothing lets it take over the administration. So options (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Notice the Sixth Schedule, for tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram, which does create Autonomous District Councils with law-making powers. PESA, 1996 extends panchayats to Fifth Schedule areas with strong gram sabha powers.
"directions" stretched into "take over". Strong verbs usually signal a wrong statement in this topic.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages ?
- 1. Konkani
- 2. Manipuri
- 3. Nepali
- 4. Maithili
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (a) & explanation
Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added in 1992 (a). The 71st Amendment (1992) added Konkani (item 1), Manipuri (item 2) and Nepali (item 3) to the Eighth Schedule, raising the count from 15 to 18. Item 4 is wrong: Maithili came in with the 92nd Amendment (2003), along with Bodo, Dogri and Santhali, raising the count to 22. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice an easy memory hook: 71 brought the "K-M-N" trio. The original Constitution had 14 languages; Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment (1967). Demands are pending for many more, such as Bhojpuri and Rajasthani. Classical language status is separate; Marathi, Bengali and others got it in 2024.
Maithili is a big, old language, so students assume it came early. It is one of the four added in 2003.
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Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India ?
- 1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
- 2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
- 3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
All three statements are correct (d). Statement 1 is right: Part IXA (Articles 243P to 243ZG), added by the 74th Amendment (1992), covers Municipalities. Statement 2 is right: Part XVIII (Articles 352 to 360) covers Emergency provisions. Statement 3 is right: Part XX has a single Article, 368, on amending the Constitution. So options (a), (b) and (c), which leave one out, are wrong.
Notice other key Parts: Part III for Fundamental Rights, Part IV for Directive Principles, Part IVA for Fundamental Duties, and Part IX for Panchayats (73rd Amendment). Part IXB covers cooperative societies (97th Amendment). Knowing the big Parts by number saves time in such questions.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over ?
Answer (d) & explanation
Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the Provisional President (d). At the first sitting of the Constituent Assembly on 9 December 1946, the oldest member, Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, was made temporary President, following the French practice. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected permanent President on 11 December 1946. Option (a) is wrong: C. Rajagopalachari was not its President. Option (b) is wrong: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee. Option (c) is wrong: T.T. Krishnamachari was a member of that committee.
Notice other key roles: H.C. Mukherjee was Vice-President, B.N. Rau the Constitutional Adviser, and Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution on 13 December 1946. The Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949.
famous names from the Assembly. Each had a different role, so tie the name to the post.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country?
Answer (c) & explanation
A Constitution chiefly defines and limits government's powers (c). Every option is something a Constitution does, but the chief purpose is to set out the powers of government and put limits on them. That is what makes a government constitutional, or limited, rather than all-powerful. This idea is called constitutionalism. Option (a) is a secondary task: it gives the goals for lawmaking, through the Preamble and Directive Principles. Option (b) is true but is only the first step. Option (d) is a goal of a welfare state, set by the Indian Constitution, but not the chief purpose of every Constitution.
Notice how India limits power: Fundamental Rights, judicial review, federalism, separation of powers and the basic structure doctrine from Kesavananda Bharati (1973).
four true statements. When UPSC writes "best" or "chief", look for the most basic idea, not the most attractive one.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements :
- 1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
- 2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
- 3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Two statements are correct (b). Statement 1 is right: under paragraph 6 of the Fifth Schedule, the President declares an area a Scheduled Area by order, after consulting the State Governor. Statement 2 is right: Scheduled Areas range from whole districts down to clusters of villages within a block. Statement 3 is wrong: the annual report on Scheduled Areas comes from the Governor, and it goes to the President, not from the Chief Minister to the Home Ministry.
Notice the Tribes Advisory Council, of up to 20 members, three-fourths of them ST members of the State Assembly, which advises on tribal welfare. Ten States have Fifth Schedule areas. The Sixth Schedule covers tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
the wrong office (CM for Governor) and the wrong recipient. The Governor is the key figure in the Fifth Schedule.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002 :
Statement-I :
- One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm.
Statement-II :
- The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3 : 2.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer (d) & explanation
Statement I is wrong but Statement II is correct (d). Statement II is right: the Flag Code of India, 2002 fixes the ratio of length to height at 3 : 2. Statement I is wrong: the Code lists nine standard sizes, from 6300 × 4200 mm down to 150 × 100 mm. Sizes near the middle include 900 × 600 and 450 × 300, but 600 × 400 is not on the list, even though it keeps the ratio.
Notice recent changes. In 2021–22, the Code was amended to allow machine-made and polyester flags, and to let the flag fly day and night when hoisted in the open by the public, for the Har Ghar Tiranga campaign. The Supreme Court held in Naveen Jindal (2004) that flying the flag is part of free expression.
a size that fits the 3 : 2 ratio. Fitting the ratio does not make it a standard size.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day :
Statement-I :
- The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II :
- On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statement I is correct but Statement II is wrong (c). Statement I is right: Constitution Day, or Samvidhan Divas, has been observed on 26 November since 2015 to promote constitutional values. That is the day in 1949 when the Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution. Statement II is wrong: the Drafting Committee under Dr B.R. Ambedkar was set up much earlier, on 29 August 1947. The statement has the right person but the wrong event.
Notice the dates: the Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950, chosen because the Congress had declared Purna Swaraj on 26 January 1930. Some provisions, such as citizenship and elections, took effect on 26 November 1949 itself. 2025 marked 75 years of adoption.
26 November is real, so the date feels safe. Ask what happened on it.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
Answer (a) & explanation
Fifth Schedule status protects tribal land (a). Paragraph 5(2) of the Fifth Schedule lets the Governor make regulations for Scheduled Areas that can prohibit or restrict the transfer of tribal land to non-tribals, and control money-lending. Option (b) is wrong: autonomous district councils are part of the Sixth Schedule, used in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Option (c) is wrong: a Scheduled Area stays part of its State; it does not become a Union Territory. Option (d) is wrong: Special Category status came from the old Planning Commission criteria, not from the Fifth Schedule.
Notice the link with PESA, 1996, which gives gram sabhas in Fifth Schedule areas power over minor forest produce and land. Ten states now have Fifth Schedule areas.
option (b) describes the Sixth Schedule's autonomous councils. Keep the two Schedules apart.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to India, consider the following statements :
- 1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
- 2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
- 3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Only statement 1 is correct (a). Statement 1 is right: India has single citizenship, and the Supreme Court (in Pradeep Jain, 1984) has said there is only one domicile, that of India, not of each State. Statement 2 is wrong: Article 58 needs the President to be a citizen, not a citizen by birth; naturalised citizens are eligible too, unlike in the US. Statement 3 is wrong: under Section 10 of the Citizenship Act, 1955, a naturalised or registered citizen can be deprived of citizenship, for example for fraud or disloyalty.
Notice the ways to gain citizenship: birth, descent, registration, naturalisation and incorporation of territory. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019, with rules notified in 2024, eased naturalisation for some groups.
statement 2 borrows the US rule (natural-born citizen) and applies it to India.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?
Answer (d) & explanation
Separation of powers is the best safeguard of liberty (d). Liberty is safest when no single organ holds all power, so each can check the others. That is Montesquieu's case for the separation of powers in The Spirit of the Laws (1748). Option (a) is a trap: a "committed" judiciary, meaning one committed to the government of the day, as debated in India in the 1970s, is a danger to liberty. Option (b) is wrong: centralising power threatens liberty. Option (c) is wrong: an elected government can still become oppressive, the "tyranny of the majority".
Notice that India has a functional separation of powers rather than a strict one; it is part of the basic structure. The US Constitution follows it most strictly, with checks and balances.
(a) sounds good, but "committed judiciary" was a 1970s phrase for a judiciary loyal to the government.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?
Answer (b) & explanation
India was a Sovereign Democratic Republic (b). On 26 January 1950, the Preamble described India as a "Sovereign Democratic Republic". The words "Socialist" and "Secular" were added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, during the Emergency, along with "integrity". So option (c) and option (d) describe India only after 1976. Option (a) is wrong because it leaves out "Sovereign", which was there from the start.
Notice that the Preamble is based on Nehru's Objectives Resolution (13 December 1946). The Supreme Court held it is part of the Constitution in Kesavananda Bharati (1973), after saying otherwise in the Berubari case (1960). In 2024, the Court upheld the 1976 additions.
(d) is today's text. The question asks about 1950.
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Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Constitutional government means
Answer (d) & explanation
Constitutional government means a government limited by the Constitution (d). A constitutional government is a limited government: its powers are bound by a higher law that it cannot override at will, with rights for citizens and checks such as judicial review. It may be federal or unitary, and parliamentary or presidential. Option (a) is wrong: a federal structure is not required. Options (b) and (c) are wrong: whether the head has nominal or real powers decides parliamentary versus presidential, not whether the government is constitutional.
Notice the idea of constitutionalism: the limits on power, not just the existence of a written text. A dictatorship may have a written constitution and still not be a constitutional government. Britain has constitutionalism without a single written constitution.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model?
- 1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
- 2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer (c) & explanation
Both statements are correct (c). Statement 1 is right: Britain has no single written constitution that limits Parliament, so its Parliament is sovereign and can pass any law. India's Parliament works within a written Constitution, limited by Fundamental Rights, the federal division of powers and judicial review. Even its power to amend is limited by the basic structure doctrine (Kesavananda Bharati, 1973). Statement 2 is right: under Article 145(3), a substantial question on interpreting the Constitution goes to a bench of at least five judges, the Constitution Bench.
Notice that India's model blends British parliamentary sovereignty with American judicial supremacy. Other British features India kept: cabinet government, the speaker, and a nominal head of state.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following best defines the term 'State'?
Answer (a) & explanation
Option (a) best defines the State (a). Political science names four elements of a State: population, territory, government and sovereignty. Option (a) has all four: a community of persons (population), a definite territory, independence from external control (sovereignty) and an organised government. Option (b) leaves out sovereignty and adds aims such as protecting natural rights. Option (c) describes a nation or community with shared culture, and also misses sovereignty. Option (d) adds features, such as an independent judiciary, that a State need not have.
Notice the difference between State and nation: a nation is a people with a shared identity; a State is a political body. Under Article 12, "State" in India also covers bodies like Parliament and local authorities.
(b) is long and sounds complete, but it never mentions independence from outside control.
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Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The Constitution of India defines its 'basic structure' in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
- 2. The Constitution of India provides for 'judicial review' to safeguard the citizens' liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong because the basic structure is not defined anywhere in the Constitution. It comes from court judgments, mainly Kesavananda Bharati (1973). Later cases added features such as federalism, secularism, democracy and judicial review. Statement 2 is wrong in UPSC's view because the phrase "judicial review" does not appear in the text. The power comes from Articles 13, 32, 136 and 226, and the courts treat it as part of the basic structure, but the Constitution does not "provide for" it in those words.
Notice the important basic structure cases: Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975), Minerva Mills (1980) and S.R. Bommai (1994), which added secularism and federalism.
the power of judicial review exists, so statement 2 feels right. UPSC was testing whether the Constitution "provides for" it in those words.
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Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
A constitutional government by definition is a
Answer (d) & explanation
A constitutional government is a limited government (d). It works within limits set by a higher law, the constitution. Its powers are defined and restricted, and fundamental rights, separation of powers, judicial review and the rule of law stop it from becoming arbitrary. So it is limited by definition. Option (a) is wrong because government by a legislature need not be limited, as a legislature can also be absolute. Option (b) is wrong because a popular government can still be unlimited and even tyrannical. Option (c) is wrong because multiple parties do not make a government constitutional.
Notice that even the UK, without a written constitution, has constitutional government through conventions. India's Constitution limits Parliament too, through the basic structure doctrine.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?
- 1. Preamble
- 2. Directive Principles of State Policy
- 3. Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
All three reflect the UDHR (d). The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the UN on 10 December 1948, while India's Constitution was being drafted. The Preamble (1) echoes its ideals of justice, liberty, equality and the dignity of the individual. Many Directive Principles (2) match its social and economic rights, such as the right to work, education, a living wage and humane conditions of work (Articles 39, 41–43). Article 29(1) of the UDHR says everyone has duties to the community, which matches the Fundamental Duties in Part IVA (3).
Notice that 10 December is Human Rights Day. India's Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 created the NHRC, which follows the Paris Principles.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.