Constitutional and statutory bodies, elections, amendments, rights and governance: previous-year questions
42 real UPSC Prelims questions (2011–2026) with the official answer and a clear explanation. 17 of them came in the last five papers.
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At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
Answer (d) & explanation
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency (d). The Forest Rights Act, 2006 recognises the rights of forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers over land they cultivate and forest resources they use. Because it is a law for tribal and forest communities, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs is its nodal ministry. Option (a) is a trap: the Environment Ministry handles forest conservation laws, such as the Forest (Conservation) Act. Options (b) and (c) are wrong: Panchayati Raj and Rural Development have no nodal role, though the gram sabha is central to the Act.
Notice the three kinds of rights: individual, community and community forest resource rights. Mendha Lekha in Maharashtra got the first community forest rights.
(a): the word "Forest" in the Act's name pulls you to MoEFCC.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards :
- 1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.
- 2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.
- 3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.
Which of the above statements are not correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
All three statements are not correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong: in Balaji Raghavan v. Union of India (1995), the Supreme Court held that the Bharat Ratna and Padma awards are not titles under Article 18(1), so they cannot be used as prefixes or suffixes to names. Statement 2 is wrong: the awards were suspended twice, in 1977–80 and 1992–98. Statement 3 is wrong: the Bharat Ratna is normally limited to three a year, not five; 2024 was an exception, with five awards, including Karpoori Thakur and M.S. Swaminathan.
Notice that both awards were instituted in 1954. The Padma awards have three grades: Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri, announced on the eve of Republic Day.
the question asks for statements that are not correct. Circle "not" before you start.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
- 2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data.
- 3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
- 4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 2 and 4 are correct (b). In Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2018), the five-judge Aadhaar verdict, the Supreme Court upheld Aadhaar but limited it. Statement 1 is wrong because the Court allowed authentication records to be kept for six months, not three, cutting the earlier five years. Statement 2 is right because it struck down Section 57, which had let private companies use Aadhaar data. Statement 3 is wrong because Aadhaar cannot be made mandatory for insurance, bank accounts, mobile connections or school admissions. Statement 4 is right because Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act allows it to be required for subsidies and benefits paid from the Consolidated Fund.
Notice the 2019 amendment allowing voluntary private use, and the passing of the Aadhaar Act as a Money Bill, still being questioned.
"three months" is close to the real six. Close numbers are UPSC's favourite way to make a statement false.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
- 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only statement 2 is correct (b). Statement 1 is wrong because it was the 39th Amendment (1975), passed during the Emergency, that added Article 329A. It placed the election of the Prime Minister and Speaker beyond the courts, after the Allahabad High Court set aside Indira Gandhi's election. The Supreme Court struck down part of it in Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975), and the 44th Amendment (1978) removed it. Statement 2 is right because the 99th Amendment (2014) set up the National Judicial Appointments Commission. In 2015, in the Fourth Judges case, the Court struck it down for violating judicial independence, part of the basic structure.
So the collegium system continues. Notice the ongoing debate on the Memorandum of Procedure for judicial appointments.
39th and 44th are a pair: one did the damage, the other undid it. UPSC swapped them.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India :
- 1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
- 2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
- 3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
- 4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct (c). There are 75 PVTGs, living in 18 States and one Union Territory, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands (1). The criteria for PVTG status are pre-agricultural level of technology, low literacy, a subsistence economy, and a stagnant or declining population (2). The Irulars of Tamil Nadu, known for catching snakes and making antivenom, and the Konda Reddis of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana are on the list (4). Statement 3 is wrong because the number is 75, not 95.
The category came from the Dhebar Commission (1960–61) and was named PVTG in 2006. Odisha has the most PVTGs (13). Notice PM-JANMAN (2023), a ₹24,000 crore mission for PVTG housing, roads, water and health.
75 changed to 95. Learn the exact count.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
- 2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong because Section 9 of the Aadhaar Act, 2016 says the Aadhaar number is not proof of citizenship or domicile. Any resident, including a foreigner who has lived in India for 182 days in the past year, can get one. Statement 2 is wrong because the Act lets UIDAI omit or deactivate a number in cases set out in its regulations, such as fraud, duplicate entries or biometric problems.
In Puttaswamy (Aadhaar, 2018), the Supreme Court upheld Aadhaar for welfare and PAN linking. It struck down Section 57, which had let private firms demand it. Notice the recent debate during the SIR of electoral rolls (2025): the Supreme Court let Aadhaar be used as an identity document, but not as proof of citizenship.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
Answer (c) & explanation
Any citizen whose name is on an electoral roll can file (c). Under Section 4(d) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a Lok Sabha candidate must be an elector for any parliamentary constituency in India. They need not live in or be registered in the constituency they contest, so (b) is wrong. Being a resident (a) or just a citizen (d) is not enough. The person must be on a roll and must also meet Article 84: Indian citizenship, the oath, and a minimum age of 25. Reserved seats need an SC/ST candidate from any State.
Rajya Sabha candidates need to be 30, and since 2003 they need not live in the State they represent (Kuldip Nayar, 2006). Notice that a candidate can contest at most two seats (Section 33(7)).
(b) residence in the same constituency is not needed. (d) citizenship alone is not enough.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
- 2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong because India uses the first-past-the-post system for Lok Sabha and Assembly elections. The candidate with the most votes wins, even with far less than 50% when many candidates split the vote. Statement 2 is wrong because the Constitution only says the House shall choose a Speaker and a Deputy Speaker from among its members (Article 93; Article 178 for States). Giving the Deputy Speaker's post to the opposition is only a convention, and it has often been ignored. The 17th Lok Sabha (2019–24) had no Deputy Speaker at all.
Notice where India uses proportional representation instead: the Rajya Sabha, the President's election, and the Vice-President's election, all through a single transferable vote.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
Answer (c) & explanation
UPSC treated the right to vote and to be elected as a constitutional right (c). Article 326 says elections to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies shall be based on adult suffrage, so every citizen aged 18 and above can vote (the age was lowered from 21 by the 61st Amendment, 1988). Articles 84 and 173 set out who may be elected. Since these are in the Constitution but not in Part III, it is not a Fundamental Right (a), and it is not a natural right (b).
The Supreme Court has also called voting a statutory right under the Representation of the People Act. In Kuldip Nayar (2006) and Jyoti Basu (1982), it said voting and contesting are statutory rights. Notice that the freedom to express one's vote, such as the NOTA option, is protected under Article 19(1)(a) (PUCL, 2013).
(d) has support in Kuldip Nayar (2006), where the Court called these rights statutory. UPSC's answer rests on Article 326.
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Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
- 2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
- 3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Only statement 3 is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong because the Election Commission has been a three-member body since 1993: the Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. Statement 2 is wrong because the Commission itself fixes the schedule for general elections and by-elections, not the Home Ministry. Statement 3 is right because, under paragraph 15 of the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, it decides disputes between rival groups of a recognised party, as it did for the Shiv Sena and NCP in 2023–24.
Under the CEC and Other ECs Act, 2023, a panel of the PM, the Leader of the Opposition and a Union Minister chooses the members. Notice the earlier case Anoop Baranwal (2023), which had included the CJI on that panel.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the
Answer (d) & explanation
NITI Aayog was set up on 1 January 2015, by a Cabinet resolution, to replace the Planning Commission (1950) (d). Neither body is constitutional or statutory. The Finance Commission (b) is a constitutional body under Article 280 and continues. The Human Rights Commission (a) is statutory under the 1993 Act, and the Law Commission (c) is set up by the government for fixed terms; neither was replaced.
NITI Aayog works as a think tank and promotes cooperative federalism, with a Governing Council of the PM and all Chief Ministers. Notice how planning shifted from top-down plans to advice and indices.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following are associated with 'Planning' in India?
- 1. The Finance Commission
- 2. The National Development Council
- 3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
- 4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
- 5. The Parliament
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer (c) & explanation
Under the planning system of 2014, the Planning Commission drafted each Five-Year Plan, the National Development Council approved it, and Parliament discussed and adopted it. So 2 and 5 are correct (c). The Finance Commission shares taxes between the Centre and States and is not a planning body. UPSC did not count the Ministries of Rural and Urban Development, which carry plans out, as part of the planning machinery.
The NDC included the Prime Minister, Union Cabinet ministers and all Chief Ministers. Notice how NITI Aayog's Governing Council now plays a similar role of bringing the Centre and States together.
the Finance Commission handles money, so it looks like a planning body. Its job is tax devolution under Article 280.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
- 1. The Prime Minister
- 2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
- 3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
- 4. Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Answer (b) & explanation
Items 1, 3 and 4 are correct (b). The National Development Council (1952) was chaired by the Prime Minister (1) and included all Union Cabinet ministers (3), the Chief Ministers of all States (4), administrators of Union Territories, and members of the Planning Commission. Item 2 is wrong: the Finance Commission chairman was not a member. So (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice its fate: the NDC approved the Five-Year Plans, but after NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission in 2015, it has not met; NITI's Governing Council, with the PM, all Chief Ministers and UT Lt Governors, now does a similar job. The last NDC meeting was in 2012, approving the 12th Plan. Trap: the Finance Commission is a constitutional body but was outside the NDC.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
- 2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong: under Article 368, a constitutional amendment bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament, not only the Lok Sabha, and it needs no prior presidential permission. Statement 2 is wrong: amendments affecting federal provisions, such as the distribution of powers, representation of States in Parliament, or the Supreme Court and High Courts, need ratification by half of the State legislatures, not all of them. So (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Notice the related rules: each House must pass the bill separately by a special majority; there is no joint sitting, and the President must give assent (24th Amendment, 1971). The GST amendment (101st, 2016) was ratified by states under this rule. Trap: 'all States' overstates the requirement.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
Attorney General of India can
- 1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
- 2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
- 3. speak in the Lok Sabha
- 4. vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct (c). Under Article 88, the Attorney General has the right to speak in (3) and take part in the proceedings of either House (1), any joint sitting, and any committee of which he may be named a member (2). Item 4 is wrong: he is not a Member of Parliament, so he cannot vote. So (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice the office: appointed under Article 76, the Attorney General is India's highest law officer, must be qualified to be a Supreme Court judge, and holds office during the President's pleasure. He is not a member of the Cabinet. R. Venkataramani has held the post since October 2022. He enjoys the privileges of an MP (Article 105(4)). Trap: speaking without voting is the key distinction.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following bodies *does not/do not* find mention in the Constitution?
- 1. National Development Council
- 2. Planning Commission
- 3. Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Answer (d) & explanation
All three are correct (d), as none is in the Constitution. The Planning Commission (1950) and the National Development Council (1952) were set up by executive resolutions of the Union government (1, 2). The Zonal Councils were created by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, a statute (3). So (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Notice what followed: the Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog on 1 January 2015, also by executive resolution, and the NDC has become defunct. Bodies that are constitutional include the Finance Commission (Article 280), the Inter-State Council (Article 263) and the GST Council (279A). The North-Eastern Council is statutory (1971). Trap: important bodies are not always constitutional.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
- 2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
- 3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct (b). Economic and social planning is Entry 20 of the Concurrent List (2). Article 243G lets State legislatures entrust panchayats with preparing plans for economic development and social justice and implementing schemes, including those in the Eleventh Schedule (3). Statement 1 is wrong: the National Development Council (1952) was a separate body of the PM, Union ministers and all Chief Ministers, created by executive resolution; it was not an organ of the Planning Commission, though the Commission served as its secretariat. So (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the change: NITI Aayog (2015) replaced the Planning Commission, and its Governing Council of CMs has effectively replaced the NDC. Panchayats now prepare Gram Panchayat Development Plans. Trap: 'organ' overstates a working link.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to consumers’ rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
- 2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
- 3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct (c). Under food-safety law, a consumer can buy a sample and get it tested at an accredited laboratory, paying a fee (1). Under consumer law, the legal heir or representative of a deceased consumer may file a complaint (3). Statement 2 is wrong: consumer commissions charge a fee that rises with the value of the claim. So (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice the current law: the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 replaced the 1986 Act, renamed forums as District, State and National Commissions, set up the Central Consumer Protection Authority, and allows e-filing (e-Daakhil). Since 2020 the rules waive the fee for claims up to ₹5 lakh, so statement 2 is still wrong as a general rule. Trap: 'no fee' is too absolute.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of ‘Inclusive Governance’?
- 1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking
- 2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts
- 3. Increasing the government spending on public health
- 4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct (c). Inclusive governance means planning and services reach everyone, especially the poor. Effective District Planning Committees bring local participation into planning (2). More public health spending widens access to care (3). A stronger Mid-day Meal Scheme improves nutrition and school attendance (4). Statement 1 is wrong: letting NBFCs do banking is a financial-sector reform, not essentially an inclusion measure. So (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice the current versions: Mid-day Meal is now PM POSHAN (2021), and the National Health Policy 2017 targets public health spending of 2.5% of GDP. Small Finance Banks and Payments Banks (2015) are the inclusion-focused route for non-bank players. Trap: 'banking' sounds inclusive but the measure as stated is not.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
- 1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
- 2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
- 3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
- 4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct (c). CAG audit reports on ministries' projects are examined by Parliament's Public Accounts Committee, where the CAG acts as its 'friend, philosopher and guide' (2). Investigating agencies such as the CBI have used CAG findings to build cases, as in the 2G spectrum and coal block allocations (3). Statement 1 is wrong: India's CAG has no exchequer control, even in an emergency; that is a power of Britain's Comptroller. Statement 4 is wrong: the CAG has no judicial or prosecuting powers. So (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice the basics: CAG is appointed under Article 148, holds office for six years or until 65, is removable like a Supreme Court judge, and reports go through the President (Article 151). Trap: 'Comptroller' in the title suggests control it does not have.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.