Parliament and state legislatures: previous-year questions
46 real UPSC Prelims questions (2011–2026) with the official answer and a clear explanation. 15 of them came in the last five papers.
How often UPSC asks this
Questions per year, counted from the official papers.
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Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India :
- 1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
- 2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
- 3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Answer (c) & explanation
Only one statement is correct (c). Statement 3 is right: an unstarred question gets a written answer, so no supplementary question can follow. Statement 1 is wrong: unstarred questions get written, not oral, answers. Statement 2 is wrong: a starred question, marked with an asterisk, gets an oral answer on the floor, and supplementaries may follow. Statements 1 and 2 swap the two types. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice the third type: a short notice question is on a matter of urgent public importance, asked with less than ten days' notice and answered orally. Question Hour is usually the first hour of a sitting, followed by Zero Hour, an Indian innovation not found in the Rules of Procedure.
a clean swap of definitions. Remember: the star is for the spoken answer on the floor.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India :
- 1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
- 2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
- 3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
- 4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Answer (d) & explanation
No statement is correct (d). The Committee on the Welfare of SCs and STs has 30 members. Statement 1 is wrong: the Speaker appoints its Chairperson from among the Lok Sabha members. Statement 2 is wrong: 20 members come from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha, the reverse of the statement. Statement 3 is wrong: no Minister at all can be a member. Statement 4 is wrong: the term is one year, not two. So options (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Notice the pattern: like the Estimates and Public Accounts committees, it is a financial-style committee where Ministers are barred. Its job is to examine the work of the National Commissions for SCs and STs and the implementation of safeguards.
four confident details, all slightly off. When every line has a number or an office, check each one.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
- II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
- III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements I and III are correct (c). Statement I is right: under Article 94, on dissolution of the Lok Sabha the Speaker stays in office until just before the first meeting of the new House. Statement III is right: the Speaker may be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members, after at least 14 days' notice. Both lines are copied almost word for word from Article 94. Statement II is wrong: nothing in the Constitution asks the Speaker to leave the party.
Notice that resigning from the party is a convention in Britain, not a rule in India. The Speaker decides defection cases under the Tenth Schedule and certifies Money Bills. The Deputy Speaker post stayed vacant for the whole 17th Lok Sabha.
a good practice dressed as a constitutional rule. Ask, "Which Article says this?"
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Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
- II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement I is wrong: under the Tenth Schedule, the Speaker or Chairman decides defection cases, subject to judicial review (Kihoto Hollohan, 1992). The President decides other disqualifications under Article 103, and then on the Election Commission's opinion, not the Cabinet's. Statement II is wrong: "political party" appears many times in the Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment in 1985. So options (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Notice the later change: the 91st Amendment (2003) removed the "split" exception (one-third), leaving only mergers backed by two-thirds of members. Courts have asked Speakers to decide defection petitions within a reasonable time, ideally three months.
two different routes mixed up: Article 103 (President, on EC's opinion) and the Tenth Schedule (presiding officer).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament ?
- 1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
- 2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
- 3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
- 4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct (c). Statement 1 is right: Article 109 sets the special procedure for Money Bills. Statement 2 is right: a Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha, never in the Council of States, and only on the President's recommendation. Statement 3 is right: the Rajya Sabha must return it within 14 days, with or without recommendations, and cannot reject it. Statement 4 is wrong: the Lok Sabha is free to accept or reject those recommendations.
Notice that Article 110 defines a Money Bill, and the Speaker's certificate is final. The Supreme Court is examining the use of the Money Bill route for laws like Aadhaar. A joint sitting is not possible on a Money Bill.
"suggest" in statement 3 and "have to be accepted" in statement 4. The Rajya Sabha recommends; the Lok Sabha decides.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct ?
- 1. Initially it was an *ad-hoc* Committee.
- 2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
- 3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct (c). Statement 1 is right: the Lok Sabha Ethics Committee began as an ad hoc committee in 2000 and became permanent in 2015. Statement 3 is right: it does not take up matters that are sub judice, meaning before a court. Statement 2 is wrong: any person can complain, through a member of the Lok Sabha; members can complain directly. So "only a Member" is wrong, and options (a), (b) and (d) fail.
Notice the related case: in 2023, the committee recommended expelling Mahua Moitra in the "cash-for-query" case. The Rajya Sabha set up its own Ethics Committee earlier, in 1997. Both work with the Privileges Committee on member conduct.
"only". Here the outsider can complain too, just through an MP.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam' :
- 1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
- 2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
- 3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct (c). The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam is the 106th Amendment (2023). It reserves one-third of seats for women in the Lok Sabha, State Assemblies and the Delhi Assembly. Statement 2 is right: it runs for 15 years, which Parliament can extend. Statement 3 is right: one-third of SC and ST seats go to women from those groups. Statement 1 is wrong: it starts only after delimitation based on the first Census after the Act, not from the 18th Lok Sabha.
Notice the gap: there is no separate quota for OBC women, a point of debate. Women have had one-third reservation in panchayats and municipalities since the 73rd and 74th Amendments (1992). Census 2027 work is now under way.
a date that sounds right. The trigger is delimitation, not a numbered Lok Sabha.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements :
- 1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
- 2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (c) & explanation
Both statements are treated as correct (c). Statement 1: Article 112 makes the President cause the Annual Financial Statement (the Budget) to be laid before both Houses. In practice the Finance Minister presents it for the Council of Ministers, which the Prime Minister heads; UPSC read statement 1 in that sense. Statement 2 is right: Article 113(3) says no demand for a grant can be made except on the President's recommendation. So options (a), (b) and (d) fail under UPSC's key.
Notice that the word "Budget" is not used in the Constitution. Since 2017, the Budget is presented on 1 February, and the Railway Budget is merged into it. Article 114 covers the Appropriation Bill.
a statement that sounds loose can still be accepted. Read it the way a working government reads it, not word by word.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :
While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration
- 1. He/She shall not preside.
- 2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
- 3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (a) & explanation
Only statement 1 is correct (a). Article 96 settles this. Statement 1 is right: the Speaker shall not preside while a resolution for their removal is being considered. Statement 2 is wrong: the Speaker may speak and take part in the proceedings. Statement 3 is wrong: the Speaker may vote in the first instance, though not when votes are equal. So options (b), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the related rules: the Speaker is removed by a resolution passed by an effective majority of the Lok Sabha, after 14 days' notice (Article 94). Normally the Speaker has only a casting vote in a tie. The same rules apply to the Deputy Speaker, and to the Rajya Sabha's chairman under Article 92.
it feels fair that the Speaker should be silent. The Constitution lets the Speaker defend herself and vote as a member.
UPSC repeats traps like this year after year. The PYQ Book gathers every trap in one place, so you see them coming. Try the free sample
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements :
- 1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
- 2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
- 3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (b). Statement 1 is right: when the Lok Sabha is dissolved, Bills pending in it lapse. Statement 2 is right: Bills passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha also lapse. Statement 3 is wrong: a Bill for which the President has already notified a joint sitting does not lapse, under Article 108(5). So options (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice what survives dissolution: a Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha that the Lok Sabha has not passed, and Bills passed by both Houses awaiting assent. Only three joint sittings have been held: Dowry Prohibition (1961), Banking Service Commission (1978) and POTA (2002).
a Bill pending only in the Rajya Sabha (never passed by the Lok Sabha) does not lapse. UPSC can flip to that case.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements :
- 1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
- 2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned *sine die* but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
- 3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct (c). Statement 2 is right: prorogation normally follows adjournment sine die (without a fixed date), but nothing stops a House from being prorogued while sitting. Statement 3 is right: the President dissolves the Lok Sabha on the advice of the Council of Ministers, except in rare cases, such as when a government has lost its majority. Statement 1 is wrong: prorogation under Article 85 is done on ministerial advice, like the President's other powers.
Notice the differences: adjournment pauses a sitting and is done by the Speaker or Chairman; prorogation ends a session; dissolution ends the Lok Sabha itself. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent House and is never dissolved.
"does not require advice". Article 74 binds the President across almost every power.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements :
- 1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
- 2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
- 3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Two statements are correct (b). Statement 1 is right: a Finance Bill that is not a Money Bill (an Article 117 bill) goes through the Rajya Sabha like an ordinary Bill, so the Rajya Sabha can amend or reject it. Statement 2 is right: for a Money Bill (Article 110), the Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations within 14 days, which the Lok Sabha may ignore. Statement 3 is wrong: there is indeed no joint sitting for a Money Bill, but for a Finance Bill a joint sitting is possible, not "necessary".
Notice that only the Speaker certifies a Bill as a Money Bill. The use of this route for laws like Aadhaar (2016) was challenged, and a larger bench of the Supreme Court is examining it.
"necessary" in statement 3. A joint sitting is an option the President may use, never automatic.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
- 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
- 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
- 3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (b) & explanation
Only the no-confidence motion is exclusive to the Lok Sabha (b). Item 2 is right: under Article 75(3), the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, so only it can pass a no-confidence motion and remove the government. Item 1 is wrong: an Emergency proclamation must be approved by both Houses within one month, by a special majority. Item 3 is wrong: impeachment of the President under Article 61 needs both Houses: one House frames the charge and the other investigates it.
Notice other Lok Sabha-only powers: Money Bills start only there (Article 110), and it alone can reject or reduce demands for grants. The Rajya Sabha's exclusive powers are under Articles 249 and 312.
revoking an Emergency is the Lok Sabha's alone (Article 352(7)), but approving it needs both Houses.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements :
- 1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
- 2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only statement 2 is correct (b). Statement 1 is wrong: the Tenth Schedule works the other way. A nominated member may join a political party within six months of taking the seat. After that, joining a party leads to disqualification. Statement 2 is right: the Schedule sets no deadline for the presiding officer to decide a defection petition. In Keisham Meghachandra Singh (2020), the Supreme Court said such cases should normally be decided within three months.
Notice that the Tenth Schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment (1985). The 91st Amendment (2003) removed the one-third split exception, leaving only a two-thirds merger. Kihoto Hollohan (1992) made the Speaker's decisions subject to judicial review.
"cannot" for "can". The six-month window is real, but its meaning is reversed.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :
- 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
- 2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
- 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
- 4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct (a). Statement 1 is right: under Rule 8 of the Lok Sabha's Rules of Procedure, the election of the Deputy Speaker is held on a date the Speaker fixes. Statement 2 is wrong: no rule ties the post to the opposition or the ruling party; giving it to the opposition is only a custom. Statement 3 is right: when presiding, the Deputy Speaker has the Speaker's full powers, and no appeal lies against his rulings. Statement 4 is wrong: the motion is moved by a member, not by the Speaker.
Notice that Article 93 says the Lok Sabha "shall" choose a Deputy Speaker, yet the post stayed vacant through the whole 17th Lok Sabha (2019–24). The Deputy Speaker sends any resignation to the Speaker.
"mandatory provision" for what is only a convention.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in
Answer (b) & explanation
The Rajya Sabha is equal in amending the Constitution (b). Under Article 368, an amendment Bill must pass each House separately by a special majority: a majority of total membership and two-thirds of those present and voting. There is no joint sitting to break a deadlock, so the Rajya Sabha is fully equal. Option (a) is wrong because creating a new All India Service begins with a Rajya Sabha resolution under Article 312, which is a special power of the Rajya Sabha, not an equal one. Options (c) and (d) are wrong because no-confidence motions and cut motions belong only to the Lok Sabha, to which the government is responsible.
Notice the Rajya Sabha's other special power: Article 249, letting Parliament make laws on State List subjects.
(a) is a power of the Rajya Sabha, but it is exclusive, not "equal".
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include 'The Macro Economic Framework Statement'. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by
Answer (d) & explanation
The FRBM Act, 2003 requires it (d). Under Section 3 of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, the government must lay certain statements before Parliament with the Budget. These are the Macro-economic Framework Statement, which assesses growth, the fiscal balance and the external sector, and the Medium-term Fiscal Policy cum Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement. The Medium-term Expenditure Framework Statement is laid in the session after the Budget. It is not just a convention (a). Article 112 (b) requires the Annual Financial Statement, and Article 110 defines Money Bills. Article 113 (c) deals with demands for grants.
Notice the targets: the government set a 4.4% fiscal deficit target for 2025–26, and is shifting to a debt-to-GDP anchor of about 50% by 2031.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
- 2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
- 3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct (c). Statement 1 is right because Article 85 lets the President summon each House "at such time and place as he thinks fit". The only rule is that six months must not pass between two sessions. Statement 2 is wrong because the Constitution does not provide for three sessions. The Budget, Monsoon and Winter sessions are a convention. Statement 3 is right because there is no minimum number of sitting days.
The NCRWC suggested at least 120 days a year for the Lok Sabha, but sittings have fallen to about 55–70 days. Notice the new Parliament building, used since September 2023, where the first Bill passed was the Women's Reservation (106th Amendment) Act.
the "three sessions" are so familiar that students assume the Constitution lists them.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.
- 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
- 3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (a). Statement 1 is right because, under Article 102(1)(a), an MP who holds an office of profit under the government is disqualified, unless Parliament has exempted that office by law. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 lists such exempt offices. Statement 2 is right because the Act has been amended several times, five by 2019, for example in 2006 to save posts such as Chairperson of the National Advisory Council. Statement 3 is wrong because the Constitution never defines "office of profit". Courts decide using tests such as who appoints, who pays, and whether there is real gain.
Notice the famous cases: Jaya Bachchan (2006) and Sonia Gandhi's resignation in 2006. A 2024 draft Bill proposed replacing the 1959 Act with a simpler list.
"well-defined". The Constitution uses the phrase but never defines it.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements :
- 1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
- 2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Both statements are correct (c). Statement 1 is right because, under Article 176, the Governor addresses the Assembly at the start of the first session each year and after each general election. The address sets out the government's policy, and it is prepared by the state government. Statement 2 is right in practice. Each Assembly makes its own rules of procedure under Article 208. Where they are silent, Assemblies often look to Lok Sabha rules and practice. UPSC accepted both.
The President addresses Parliament in the same way under Article 87. Notice the recent disputes, in Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka, where Governors skipped or changed parts of the speech written by the state government, raising questions about their constitutional role.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.