Parliament and state legislatures: previous-year questions
46 real UPSC Prelims questions (2011–2026) with the official answer and a clear explanation. 15 of them came in the last five papers.
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In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?
- 1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
- 2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
- 3. Finance Commission
- 4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
- 5. NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer (a) & explanation
Ad hoc and standing committees of Parliament review regulators (a). Regulators such as TRAI, IRDAI and CERC are created by laws passed by Parliament and answer to it. They are examined by Parliament's ad hoc committees (1) and Department-Related Standing Committees (2), which question officials and study their reports. The Finance Commission (3) divides tax revenue between the Centre and states. The FSLRC (4), led by Justice B.N. Srikrishna, was a one-time body that suggested reforms to financial laws. NITI Aayog (5) is an advisory think tank. None of these reviews regulators.
India has 24 DRSCs, set up in 1993. Notice the debate on stronger oversight of regulators, such as the FSLRC's call for regular performance reviews.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
- 2. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was recognised for the first time in 1969.
- 3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Only statement 2 is correct (b). Statement 1 is wrong because, in the first Lok Sabha (1952), the largest opposition party was the CPI, with 16 seats. The Swatantra Party was founded only in 1959 by C. Rajagopalachari. Statement 2 is right because Ram Subhag Singh of Congress (O) became the first recognised Leader of the Opposition in 1969, after the Congress split. Statement 3 is wrong because the practice requires 10% of the House, which is 55 members, not 75.
The LoP got statutory status under the Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977. Notice that the post was empty from 2014 to 2024. Rahul Gandhi became LoP in 2024 when Congress won 99 seats.
a wrong party, a right year, a wrong number. Check each part of a statement on its own.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?
Answer (b) & explanation
The Committee on Subordinate Legislation does this (b). Parliament passes laws and lets the executive make detailed rules, regulations, sub-rules and bye-laws under them. This is called subordinate or delegated legislation. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation, which both Houses have (15 members each), checks that these rules stay within the powers given by the parent Act or the Constitution. The Committee on Government Assurances (a) checks whether ministers keep promises made in the House. The Rules Committee (c) deals with the House's own procedure. The Business Advisory Committee (d) sets the timetable for business.
Notice that this is a real worry, as most Acts leave key details to rules. The Supreme Court strikes down rules that go beyond the parent Act (ultra vires).
(c) "Rules Committee" sounds like rules, but it handles the House's own rules.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Statement (c) is not correct. Under Article 110(1), a Money Bill covers taxes (a), the custody of the Consolidated and Contingency Funds (b), government borrowing and guarantees (d), and appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund. Appropriation from the Contingency Fund is not included. That fund (Article 267), with a corpus of ₹30,000 crore, is held at the President's disposal for urgent, unforeseen spending. Money is drawn from it without an appropriation Bill and is later made up by a Bill from the Consolidated Fund.
A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, with the President's recommendation. The Speaker's certification is final, but in Rojer Mathew (2019) the Court referred the Aadhaar Money Bill question to a larger bench. Notice that the Rajya Sabha can only delay it for 14 days.
the question asks for the statement that is not correct. Two funds appear in (b), only one is right in (c).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
- 2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (a) & explanation
Only statement 1 is correct (a). Under Article 179(a), the Speaker must give up office if they stop being a member of the Assembly (1). Statement 2 is wrong because, when the Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker stays in office until just before the first meeting of the new Assembly. This keeps the office running in between. The same rule applies to the Lok Sabha Speaker under Article 94. The Speaker can also resign or be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the members at the time, after 14 days' notice.
The Speaker decides disqualification under the Tenth Schedule. In Subhash Desai (2023), the Supreme Court said Speakers must decide within a reasonable time. Notice the related Nabam Rebia (2016) rule: a Speaker facing a removal notice should not decide disqualifications.
"immediately". There is no gap: the old Speaker continues until the new House meets.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements :
- 1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
- 2. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong because a private member is any MP who is not a minister, whether elected or nominated. A nominated member is just one kind of private member. Statement 2 is wrong because private members' Bills have become law before. Fourteen have been passed since 1952, and the last was in 1970: the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Act. In 2015 the Rajya Sabha passed Tiruchi Siva's transgender rights Bill, the first in 45 years to clear one House, but it never passed the Lok Sabha.
Private members' business is taken up on Friday afternoons. Notice how such Bills shape debate even when they fail: the government later passed its own Transgender Persons Act, 2019.
"private" does not mean "nominated". It means "not a minister".
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through
- 1. Adjournment motion
- 2. Question hour
- 3. Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (d) & explanation
All three are tools of control (d). An adjournment motion (1) sets aside normal business to discuss an urgent matter of public importance. It needs 50 members to support it, is allowed only in the Lok Sabha, and works as a kind of censure. Question Hour (2), the first hour of a sitting, makes ministers answer starred (oral), unstarred (written) and short-notice questions. Supplementary questions (3) follow up on oral answers and often catch ministers off guard.
Other tools include calling attention motions, the Zero Hour, debates on the President's address, no-confidence motions and financial committees such as the PAC. Notice that ministers answer to Parliament because of collective responsibility (Art. 75(3)).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
- 2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer (b) & explanation
Only statement 2 is correct (b). Prorogation ends a session but does not kill pending Bills (Article 107(3)), so statement 1 is wrong. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha makes Bills pending in the Lok Sabha lapse, but a Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha that the Lok Sabha has not passed survives (Article 107(4)).
Bills passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha do lapse on dissolution. A Bill on which the President has called a joint sitting before dissolution does not lapse. Notice how the Rajya Sabha, a permanent House, keeps legislative work alive across elections.
prorogation and dissolution are different. Only dissolution makes Bills lapse, and only some of them.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
- 2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
- 3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (b). On a Money Bill the Rajya Sabha can neither reject nor amend; it can only make recommendations within 14 days (Article 109). Demands for Grants are voted only in the Lok Sabha (Article 113). Statement 3 is wrong: the Annual Financial Statement is laid before both Houses (Article 112), and the Rajya Sabha does discuss it.
The Speaker's certificate decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill (Article 110). Notice how control over money rests with the directly elected House, reflecting the principle of "no taxation without representation".
"cannot discuss". The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on grants, but it can discuss the Budget.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by
Answer (a) & explanation
Under Article 108(4), a Bill at a joint sitting is passed by a simple majority of the total members of both Houses present and voting (a). Three-fourths (b), two-thirds (c) and absolute majorities (d) are not required.
A joint sitting is called by the President to resolve a deadlock on an ordinary or financial Bill, but not on a Money Bill or a Constitution Amendment Bill. The Speaker presides. Since the Lok Sabha is larger, it usually prevails. Only three joint sittings have been held: on the Dowry Prohibition Bill (1961), the Banking Service Commission Repeal Bill (1978) and POTA (2002).
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements :
- 1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
- 2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
- 3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Only statement 2 is correct (c). The Union Budget is prepared by the Budget Division of the Department of Economic Affairs, not the Department of Revenue, so statement 1 is wrong. No money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund without a law passed by Parliament (Articles 114 and 266(3)). Statement 3 is wrong: the Public Account holds money such as provident funds and deposits that belong to others, and payments from it need no vote.
The third fund, the Contingency Fund (Article 267), is held by the President for emergencies. Notice how parliamentary control over money ensures accountability.
the Department of Revenue sounds like the Budget office. It handles taxes, not the Budget document.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
- 2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
Neither statement is correct (d). Article 171(1) caps a Legislative Council at one-third of the Assembly's strength, with a minimum of 40, so it cannot exceed half. The Council elects its own Chairman from among its members under Article 182; the Governor does not nominate him.
The Governor nominates about one-sixth of the members, from fields such as literature, science, art, cooperation and social service. Only a few States have Councils, among them Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. Under Article 169, Parliament can create or abolish one on the Assembly's resolution.
"half" for one-third, "nominates" for elects. Two wrong words in two lines.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
Answer (b) & explanation
The Estimates Committee is the largest, with 30 members, all from the Lok Sabha (b). The Public Accounts Committee (a) and the Committee on Public Undertakings (c) have 22 members each: 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha. The Committee on Petitions (d) is smaller, with 15 members in the Lok Sabha.
The three financial committees keep a check on the executive: Estimates suggests economies, PAC examines the CAG's audit reports, and Public Undertakings reviews PSUs. A minister cannot be a member of them. Notice how the Estimates Committee being Lok Sabha-only mirrors that House's control over money.
PAC is the most famous, not the largest.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?
Answer (d) & explanation
The Tenth Schedule contains the anti-defection provisions (d). It was added by the 52nd Amendment (1985). The 91st Amendment (2003) removed the "split" exception and kept only mergers backed by two-thirds of the legislature party. The other schedules are unrelated: the Second covers salaries and allowances, the Fifth the administration of Scheduled Areas, and the Eighth the official languages.
The Speaker or Chairman decides on disqualification, and the Supreme Court in Kihoto Hollohan (1992) held that such decisions are open to judicial review. Notice how this schedule links party discipline to the stability of governments.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India :
- 1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
- 2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (c) & explanation
Both are correct (c). The Constitution speaks of collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Lok Sabha (Article 75(3)) but never uses the words "no-confidence motion" (1 correct). The motion comes from Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha Rules of Procedure and can be moved only in the Lok Sabha (2 correct). It needs the support of at least 50 members to be admitted, and no reason has to be given.
If it passes, the whole Council of Ministers must resign. Notice how it differs from a censure motion, which must state reasons and targets specific policies without forcing resignation.
Article 75(3) feels like a mention. It states the principle; the motion itself comes from the Rules.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
- 2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Statement 2 only is correct (b). Statement 1 is wrong: the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the Vice-President, who is not a member of the House, but the Deputy Chairman is elected from among its members. Statement 2 is correct: nominated members of both Houses cannot vote in the presidential election (Article 54 counts only elected members), but they do vote in the Vice-Presidential election (Article 66), whose electoral college is all members of both Houses. So (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the latest: C.P. Radhakrishnan became Vice-President in September 2025 after Jagdeep Dhankhar resigned in July 2025. State legislators vote for the President but not the Vice-President. Trap: one officer of the Rajya Sabha is a member and the other is not.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
Answer (a) & explanation
Option (a) is correct. The Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill; it can only make recommendations within 14 days. The Lok Sabha is free to accept or reject them, and either way the Bill is deemed passed by both Houses (Article 109). So even a 'substantial amendment' is only a recommendation. (b) is wrong: the Lok Sabha can certainly proceed. (c) is wrong: there is no return to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration. (d) is wrong: there is no joint sitting on a Money Bill (Article 108 excludes it).
Notice the related rules: the Speaker certifies a Money Bill (Article 110), and her decision is final, though the Supreme Court has examined such certification in the Aadhaar (2018) and Rojer Mathew (2019) cases; a larger bench is reviewing it. Trap: 'substantially amended' tempts you to think the Rajya Sabha has real power.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
- 1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
- 2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
- 3. examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b) & explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct (b). The Public Accounts Committee scrutinises the government's appropriation accounts and finance accounts (2) and examines the CAG's audit reports (3), checking that money was spent as Parliament intended. Statement 1 is wrong: the PAC has 22 members: 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha, elected each year by proportional representation. So (a), (c) and (d) fail.
Notice the conventions: since 1967 the PAC chair has been from the Opposition, appointed by the Speaker, and ministers cannot be members. It was first set up in 1921 under the 1919 Act. The Estimates Committee (30 members, all Lok Sabha) and the Committee on Public Undertakings (22) are the other financial committees. Trap: '25 Lok Sabha members' mixes up the numbers.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is
Answer (a) & explanation
To discuss a definite matter of urgent public importance is correct (a). An adjournment motion sets aside the normal business of the Lok Sabha to discuss a definite, factual matter of urgent public importance. It needs the support of 50 members, and because it interrupts business, it carries an element of censure of the government. The Rajya Sabha does not use it. (b) is wrong: members get information through Question Hour. (c) is wrong: reducing a demand for grant is a cut motion. (d) is wrong: the Speaker handles disorder by adjourning the House or suspending members, not through this motion.
Notice the related devices: the calling attention motion (Indian innovation, no censure), the short-duration discussion (Rule 193) and the no-confidence motion (Rule 198). Trap: 'adjournment' sounds like stopping the House for disorder.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.
Consider the following statements :
- 1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
- 2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
- 3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d) & explanation
None of the statements is correct (d). Statement 1 is wrong: Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu and Kashmir send members to the Rajya Sabha, elected by their legislative assemblies. Statement 2 is wrong: election disputes are decided by the High Courts through election petitions, with appeal to the Supreme Court; the Election Commission does not adjudicate them. Statement 3 is wrong: under Article 79, Parliament consists of the President and the two Houses. So (a), (b) and (c) fail.
Notice the details: Rajya Sabha has 245 seats, 233 elected and 12 nominated by the President. Disputes over the President's and Vice-President's elections go straight to the Supreme Court (Article 71). Trap: the President is part of Parliament though not a member of either House.
Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.